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QUESTION 11
What features can protect the data plane? (Choose three.)

A.    policing
B.    ACLs
C.    IPS
D.    antispoofing
E.    QoS
F.    DHCP-snooping

Answer: BDF
Explanation:
Data Plane Security
Data plane security can be implemented using the following features:
Access control lists
Access control lists (ACLs) perform packet filtering to control which packets move through the network and where.
Antispoofing
ACLs can be used as an antispoofing mechanism that discards traffic that has an invalid source address.
Layer 2 security features
Cisco Catalyst switches have integrated features to help secure the Layer 2 infrastructure.
ACLs
ACLs are used to secure the data plane in a variety of ways, including the following:
Block unwanted traffic or users
ACLs can filter incoming or outgoing packets on an interface, controlling access based on source addresses, destination addresses, or user authentication.
Reduce the chance of DoS attacks
ACLs can be used to specify whether traffic from hosts, networks, or users can access the network. The TCP intercept feature can also be configured to prevent servers from being flooded with requests for a connection.
Mitigate spoofing attacks
ACLs enable security practitioners to implement recommended practices to mitigate spoofing attacks.
Provide bandwidth control
ACLs on a slow link can prevent excess traffic.
Classify traffic to protect other planes
ACLs can be applied on vty lines (management plane).
ACLs can control routing updates being sent, received, or redistributed (control plane).
Antispoofing
Implementing the IETF best current practice 38 (BCP38) and RFC 2827 ingress traffic filtering renders the use of invalid source IP addresses ineffective, forcing attacks to be initiated from valid, reachable IP addresses which could be traced to the originator of an attack.
Features such as Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding (uRPF) can be used to complement the antispoofing strategy.
Layer 2 Data Plane Protection
The following are Layer 2 security tools integrated into the Cisco Catalyst switches:
Port security
Prevents MAC address spoofing and MAC address flooding attacks DHCP snooping
Prevents client attacks on the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server and switch Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI)
Adds security to ARP by using the DHCP snooping table to minimize the impact of ARP poisoning and spoofing attacks
IP source guard
Prevents IP spoofing addresses by using the DHCP snooping table

QUESTION 12
How many crypto map sets can you apply to a router interface?

A.    3
B.    2
C.    4
D.    1

Answer: D

QUESTION 13
What is the transition order of STP states on a Layer 2 switch interface?

A.    listening, learning, blocking, forwarding, disabled
B.    listening, blocking, learning, forwarding, disabled
C.    blocking, listening, learning, forwarding, disabled
D.    forwarding, listening, learning, blocking, disabled

Answer: C
Explanation:
The ports on a switch with enabled Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) are in one of the following five port states.
Blocking
Listening
Learning
Forwarding
Disabled
A switch does not enter any of these port states immediately except the blocking state. When the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is enabled, every switch in the network starts in the blocking state and later changes to the listening and learning states.
Blocking State
The Switch Ports will go into a blocking state at the time of election process, when a switch receives a BPDU on a port that indicates a better path to the Root Switch (Root Bridge), and if a port is not a Root Port or a Designated Port.
A port in the blocking state does not participate in frame forwarding and also discards frames received from the attached network segment. During blocking state, the port is only listening to and processing BPDUs on its interfaces. After 20 seconds, the switch port changes from the blocking state to the listening state.
Listening State
After blocking state, a Root Port or a Designated Port will move to a listening state. All other ports will remain in a blocked state. During the listening state the port discards frames received from the attached network segment and it also discards frames switched from another port for forwarding. At this state, the port receives BPDUs from the network segment and directs them to the switch system module for processing. After 15 seconds, the switch port moves from the listening state to the learning state.
Learning State
A port changes to learning state after listening state. During the learning state, the port is listening for and processing BPDUs . In the listening state, the port begins to process user frames and start updating the MAC address table. But the user frames are not forwarded to the destination. After 15 seconds, the switch port moves from the learning state to the forwarding state.
Forwarding State
A port in the forwarding state forwards frames across the attached network segment. In a forwarding state, the port will process BPDUs , update its MAC Address table with frames that it receives, and forward user traffic through the port. Forwarding State is the normal state. Data and configuration messages are passed through the port, when it is in forwarding state.
Disabled State
A port in the disabled state does not participate in frame forwarding or the operation of STP because a port in the disabled state is considered non-operational.

QUESTION 14
Which sensor mode can deny attackers inline?

A.    IPS
B.    fail-close
C.    IDS
D.    fail-open

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which options are filtering options used to display SDEE message types?

A.    stop
B.    none
C.    error
D.    all

Answer: CD

QUESTION 16
When a company puts a security policy in place, what is the effect on the company’s business?

A.    Minimizing risk
B.    Minimizing total cost of ownership
C.    Minimizing liability
D.    Maximizing compliance

Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which wildcard mask is associated with a subnet mask of /27?

A.    0.0.0.31
B.    0.0.0.27
C.    0.0.0.224
D.    0.0.0.255

Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which statements about reflexive access lists are true?

A.    Reflexive access lists create a permanent ACE
B.    Reflexive access lists approximate session filtering using the established keyword
C.    Reflexive access lists can be attached to standard named IP ACLs
D.    Reflexive access lists support UDP sessions
E.    Reflexive access lists can be attached to extended named IP ACLs
F.    Reflexive access lists support TCP sessions

Answer: DEF

QUESTION 19
Which actions can a promiscuous IPS take to mitigate an attack?

A.    modifying packets
B.    requesting connection blocking
C.    denying packets
D.    resetting the TCP connection
E.    requesting host blocking
F.    denying frames

Answer: BDE
Explanation:
Promiscuous Mode Event Actions
The following event actions can be deployed in Promiscuous mode. These actions are in affect for a user- configurable default time of 30 minutes. Because the IPS sensor must send the request to another device or craft a packet, latency is associated with these actions and could allow some attacks to be successful.
Blocking through usage of the Attack Response Controller (ARC) has the potential benefit of being able to perform to the network edge or at multiple places within the network.
Request block host: This event action will send an ARC request to block the host for a specified time frame, preventing any further communication. This is a severe action that is most appropriate when there is minimal chance of a false alarm or spoofing.
Request block connection: This action will send an ARC response to block the specific connection. This action is appropriate when there is potential for false alarms or spoofing.
Reset TCP connection: This action is TCP specific, and in instances where the attack requires several TCP packets, this can be a successful action. However, in some cases where the attack only needs one packet it may not work as well. Additionally, TCP resets are not very effective with protocols such as SMTP that consistently try to establish new connections, nor are they effective if the reset cannot reach the destination host in time.
Event actions can be specified on a per signature basis, or as an event action override (based on risk rating values ?event action override only). In the case of event action override, specific event actions are performed when specific risk rating value conditions are met. Event action overrides offer consistent and simplified management. IPS version 6.0 contains a default event action override with a deny-packet-inline action for events with a risk rating between 90 and 100. For this action to occur, the device must be deployed in Inline mode.
Protection from unintended automated action responses
Automated event actions can have unintended consequences when not carefully deployed. The most severe consequence can be a self denial of service (DoS) of a host or network. The majority of these unintended consequences can be avoided through the use of Event Action Filters, Never Block Addresses, Network spoofing protections, and device tuning. The following provides an overview of methods used to prevent unintended consequences from occurring.
Using Event Action Filters and Never Block
By using these capabilities, administrators may prevent a miscreant from spoofing critical IP addresses, causing a self inflicted DoS condition on these critical IP addresses. Note that Never Block capabilities only apply to ARC actions. Actions that are performed inline will still be performed as well as rate limiting if they are configured.
Minimize spoofing
Administrators can minimize spoofed packets that enter the network through the use of Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding. Administrators can minimize spoofing within their network through the use of IP Source Guard. The white paper titled Understanding Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding provides details on configuration of this feature. More information on IP Source Guard is available in the document titled Configuring DHCP Features and IP Source Guard.
Careful Use of Event Actions
By judicious use of event actions that block unwanted traffic, such as using the high signature fidelity rating, and not using automated actions on signatures that are easily spoofed, administrators can reduce the probability of an unintended result. For an event to have a high risk rating, it must have a high signature fidelity rating unless the risk rating is artificially increased through the use of Target Value Rating or Watch List Rating, which are IP specific increases.
Tuning
By tuning the signature set to minimize false positive events, administrators can reduce the chance of an event action that has an unintended consequence.
High Base Risk Rating Events
In most cases, events with a high base risk rating or a high signature fidelity rating are strong candidates for automated event actions. Care should be taken with protocols that are easily spoofed in order to prevent self DoS conditions.

QUESTION 20
Which Cisco Security Manager application collects information about device status and uses it to generate notifications and alerts?

A.    FlexConfig
B.    Device Manager
C.    Report Manager
D.    Health and Performance Monitor

Answer: D
Explanation:
“Report Manager – Collects, displays and exports network usage and security information for ASA and IPS devices, and for remote-access IPsec and SSL VPNs. These reports aggregate security data such as top sources, destinations, attackers, victims, as well as security information such as top bandwidth, duration, and throughput users. Data is also aggregated for hourly, daily, and monthly periods.” and
“Health and Performance Monitor (HPM) ?Monitors and displays key health, performance and VPN data for ASA and IPS devices in your network. This information includes critical and non-critical issues, such as memory usage, interface status, dropped packets, tunnel status, and so on. You also can categorize devices for normal or priority monitoring, and set different alert rules for the priority devices.”

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QUESTION 1
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B.    All information that is sent over the failover and stateful failover interfaces is encrypted by default
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QUESTION 301
Which type of PVLAN port allows communication from all port types?

A.    isolated
B.    community
C.    in-line
D.    promiscuous

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QUESTION 281
Which statement about zone-based firewall configuration is true?

A.    Traffic is implicitly denied by default between interfaces the same zone
B.    Traffic that is desired to or sourced from the self-zone is denied by default
C.    The zone must be configured before a can be assigned
D.    You can assign an interface to more than one interface

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QUESTION 261
HIPS and NIPS
You need to place these 7 options into HIPS and NIPS. Each section has 4 choices which means one out of these 7 options goes into both.

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QUESTION 241
Which privileged level is … by default? for user exec mode

A.    0
B.    1
C.    2
D.    5
E.    15

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QUESTION 221
Which type of Layer 2 attack can you “do something” for one host?

A.    MAC spoofing
B.    CAM overflow

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QUESTION 201
What is example of social engineering

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QUESTION 181
A data breach has occurred and your company database has been copied. Which security principle has been violated?

A.    Confidentiality
B.    Access
C.    Control
D.    Availability

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QUESTION 141
Which two next-generation encryption algorithms does Cisco recommends? (Choose two)

A.    SHA-384
B.    MD5
C.    DH-1024
D.    DES
E.    AES
F.    3DES

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QUESTION 141
Which two next-generation encryption algorithms does Cisco recommends? (Choose two)

A.    SHA-384
B.    MD5
C.    DH-1024
D.    DES
E.    AES
F.    3DES

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QUESTION 121
Which statement correctly describes the function of a private VLAN?

A.    A private VLAN partitions the Layer 2 broadcast domain of a VLAN into subdomains
B.    A private VLAN partitions the Layer 3 broadcast domain of a VLAN into subdomains
C.    A private VLAN enables the creation of multiple VLANs using one broadcast domain
D.    A private VLAN combines the Layer 2 broadcast domains of many VLANs into one major
broadcast domain

Answer: A

QUESTION 122
Which Cisco feature can help mitigate spoofing attacks by verifying symmetry of the traffic path?

A.    Unidirectional Link Detection
B.    Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding
C.    TrustSec
D.    IP Source Guard

Answer: B

QUESTION 123
What is the most common Cisco Discovery Protocol version 1 attack?

A.    Denial of Service
B.    MAC-address spoofing
C.    CAM-table overflow
D.    VLAN hopping

Answer: A

QUESTION 124
What is the Cisco preferred countermeasure to mitigate CAM overflows?

A.    Port security
B.    Dynamic port security
C.    IP source guard
D.    Root guard

Answer: B

QUESTION 125
When a switch has multiple links connected to a downstream switch, what is the first step that STP takes to prevent loops?

A.    STP elects the root bridge
B.    STP selects the root port
C.    STP selects the designated port
D.    STP blocks one of the ports

Answer: A

QUESTION 126
Which countermeasures can mitigate ARP spoofing attacks? (Choose two.)

A.    Port security
B.    DHCP snooping
C.    IP source guard
D.    Dynamic ARP inspection

Answer: BD

QUESTION 127
Which of the following statements about access lists are true? (Choose three.)

A.    Extended access lists should be placed as near as possible to the destination
B.    Extended access lists should be placed as near as possible to the source
C.    Standard access lists should be placed as near as possible to the destination
D.    Standard access lists should be placed as near as possible to the source
E.    Standard access lists filter on the source address
F.    Standard access lists filter on the destination address

Answer: BCE

QUESTION 128
In which stage of an attack does the attacker discover devices on a target network?

A.    Reconnaissance
B.    Covering tracks
C.    Gaining access
D.    Maintaining access

Answer: A

QUESTION 129
Which type of security control is defense in depth?

A.    Threat mitigation
B.    Risk analysis
C.    Botnet mitigation
D.    Overt and covert channels

Answer: A

QUESTION 130
On which Cisco Configuration Professional screen do you enable AAA?

A.    AAA Summary
B.    AAA Servers and Groups
C.    Authentication Policies
D.    Authorization Policies

Answer: A

QUESTION 131
Which three statements about Cisco host-based IPS solution are true? (Choose three)

A.    It work with deployed firewalls.
B.    It can be deployed at the perimeter
C.    It uses signature-based policies
D.    It can have more restrictive policies than network-based IPS
E.    It can generate alerts based on behavior at the desktop level
F.    It can view encrypted files

Answer: DEF
Explanation:
The key word here is ‘Cisco’, and Cisco’s host-based IPS, CSA, is NOT signature-based and CAN view encrypted files.

QUESTION 132
What are two users of SIEM software? (Choose two)

A.    performing automatic network audits
B.    configuring firewall and IDS devices
C.    alerting administrators to security events in real time
D.    scanning emails for suspicious attachments
E.    collecting and archiving syslog data

Answer: CE
Explanation:
The other choices are not functions of SIEM software.

QUESTION 133
If a packet matches more than one class map in an individual feature type’s policy map, how does the ASA handle the packet?

A.    the ASA will apply the actions from only the last matching class maps it finds for the feature type.
B.    the ASA will apply the actions from all matching class maps it finds for the feature type.
C.    the ASA will apply the actions from only the most specific matching class map it finds for the feature type.
D.    the ASA will apply the actions from only the first matching class maps it finds for the feature type

Answer: D
Explanation:
If it matches a class map for a given feature type, it will NOT attempt to match to any subsequent class maps.

QUESTION 134
What statement provides the best definition of malware?

A.    Malware is tools and applications that remove unwanted programs.
B.    Malware is a software used by nation states to commit cyber-crimes.
C.    Malware is unwanted software that is harmful or destructive
D.    Malware is a collection of worms, viruses and Trojan horses that is distributed as a single…..

Answer: C

QUESTION 135
Your security team has discovered a malicious program that has been harvesting the CEO’s email messages and the company’s user database for the last 6 months.
What are two possible types of attacks your team discovered?

A.    social activism
B.    advanced persistent threat
C.    drive-by spyware
D.    targeted malware

Answer: B
Explanation:
If required 2 answers in the real exam, please choose BD.

QUESTION 136
Which FirePOWER preprocessor engine is used to prevent SYN attacks?

A.    Anomaly.
B.    Rate-Based Prevention
C.    Portscan Detection
D.    Inline Normalization

Answer: B

QUESTION 137
What is the only permitted operation for processing multicast traffic on zone-based firewalls?

A.    Stateful inspection of multicast traffic is supported only for the self-zone.
B.    Stateful inspection of multicast traffic is supported only between the self-zone and the internal zone.
C.    Only control plane policing can protect the control plane against multicast traffic.
D.    Stateful inspection of multicast traffic is supported only for the internal zone

Answer: C
Explanation:
Stateful inspection of multicast traffic is NOT supported by Cisco Zone based firewalls OR Cisco Classic firewall.

QUESTION 138
Which of encryption technology has the broadcast platform support to protect operating systems?

A.    Middleware
B.    Hardware
C.    software
D.    file-level

Answer: C

QUESTION 139
Which feature of the Cisco Email Security Appliance can mitigate the impact of snowshoe spam and sophisticated phishing attack?

A.    holistic understanding of threats
B.    graymail management and filtering
C.    signature-based IPS
D.    contextual analysis

Answer: D

QUESTION 140
Which Sourfire secure action should you choose if you want to block only malicious traffic from a particular end-user?

A.    Trust
B.    Block
C.    Allow without inspection
D.    Monitor
E.    Allow with inspection

Answer: E
Explanation:
Allow with Inspection allows all traffic except for malicious traffic from a particular end-user. The other options are too restrictive, too permissive, or don’t exist.

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QUESTION 101
What type of security support is provided by the Open Web Application Security Project?

A.    Education about common Web site vulnerabilities.
B.    A Web site security framework.
C.    A security discussion forum for Web site developers.
D.    Scoring of common vulnerabilities and exposures.

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QUESTION 81
What is an advantage of placing an IPS on the inside of a network?

A.    It can provide higher throughput.
B.    It receives traffic that has already been filtered.
C.    It receives every inbound packet.
D.    It can provide greater security.

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QUESTION 61
For what reason would you configure multiple security contexts on the ASA firewall?

A.    To enable the use of VFRs on routers that are adjacently connected
B.    To provide redundancy and high availability within the organization
C.    To enable the use of multicast routing and QoS through the firewall
D.    To seperate different departments and business units

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QUESTION 41
Which command verifies phase 1 of an IPsec VPN on a Cisco router?

A.    show crypto map
B.    show crypto ipsec sa
C.    show crypto isakmp sa
D.    show crypto engine connection active

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QUESTION 21
Which command is needed to enable SSH support on a Cisco Router?

A.    crypto key lock rsa
B.    crypto key generate rsa
C.    crypto key zeroize rsa
D.    crypto key unlock rsa

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QUESTION 1
Which statement about communication over failover interfaces is true?

A.    All information that is sent over the failover interface is sent as clear text, but the stateful failover link is encrypted by default.
B.    All information that is sent over the failover and stateful failover interfaces is encrypted by default
C.    All information that is sent over the failover and stateful failover interfaces is sent as clear text by default
D.    Usernames, password and preshared keys are encrypted by default when they are sent over the failover and stateful failover interfaces, but other information is sent as clear text

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