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QUESTION 21
You are processing a customer payment and want to generate a payment line based on due date so that you can search the invoice lines that meet selected search criteria.
What should you do?

A.    Use Settlement
B.    Use payment transfer.
C.    Use Manual Payment Journal
D.    Use Payment proposal

Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Your company decides to use Microsoft Dynamics AX Financials for consolidated financial reporting instead of using Management Reporter.
You need to configure a new legal entity for the consolidated financial transactions.
What must you do to enable the subsidiary company’s transactions to consolidate into the new legal entity that you are creating?

A.    Enable the “Use for financial consolidation process” check box in both the consolidated and subsidiary companies.
B.    Enable the “Use for financial consolidation process” check box in the subsidiary company.
C.    Enable the “Use for financial elimination process” check box in the consolidation company.
D.    Enable the “Use for financial consolidation process” check box for the consolidated company.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa549110.aspx

QUESTION 23
You want a 2% bank charge to appear by default on all electronic methods of payment.
What do you need to set up and then link to the method of payment?

A.    terms of payment
B.    payment specification
C.    payment fee
D.    payment control

Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which form should you use to assign a chart of accounts to a legal entity?

A.    Configure account structures
B.    General ledger parameters
C.    Ledger
D.    Legal entities

Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Where do you define the Main account information for bank and cash subledger journal account transactions?

A.    On the Bank document posting profiles form
B.    On the Bank transaction groups form
C.    On the Bank groups form
D.    On the Bank accounts form

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa619635.aspx

QUESTION 26
The accounts receivable manager runs a foreign currency revaluation on February 5. The foreign currency revaluation has a considered date of January 31.
The period closing for this revaluation is set for January 31. What is the result of this invoice revaluation if the invoice is settled on February 3?

A.    The revaluation includes only documents that have settled amounts on the considered date.
B.    The revaluation excludes documents that have been settled on the considered date.
C.    The revaluation includes all documents, including unposted, that have open amounts on the considered date.
D.    The revaluation includes all documents, excluding unposted, that have open amounts on the considered date.

Answer: D

QUESTION 27
You are setting up taxes on customer invoices.
You need to report a sales tax on the invoice, as and when it is settled, to the tax authorities.

271

When the customer settles the invoice with the second payment of 625 USD, you report the remaining sales tax.
What should you set up in this situation?

A.    Withholding sales tax
B.    Sales tax exemption
C.    Standard sales tax
D.    Conditional sales taxes

Answer: D

QUESTION 28
You are an accounting manager, your company has a new customer, A ledger account must be set up to record the sales tax liability and payments made to the taxing authority in the customer’s specific region automatically.
Which two account groups should you choose for these ledger accounts? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Settlement account
B.    Sales-tax receivable
C.    Sales-tax payable
D.    Use-txpayable

Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
Your company is using basic budgeting and is planning to configure budget control.
You need to identify the additional configuration that is needed.
Which three components will already be configured as s part of the basic Budgeting setup? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    budget models
B.    budget exchange rates
C.    over budget permissions
D.    budget cycles
E.    documents and journals

Answer: ABD
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh242128.aspx

QUESTION 30
You are the accounts receivable manager at you company. The company receives an advance of 10,000 USD against a sales order from the customer.
The tax authorities require the company to re-port the sales tax on the advance amount, even though the sales have not been made.
You need to ensure that this requirement is fulfilled.
What should you do?

A.    Report sales tax on prepayment against a prepayment voucher.
B.    Report sales tax exemption against a prepayment voucher.
C.    Report withholding sales tax against a prepayment voucher.
D.    Report conditional sales tax against a prepayment voucher.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 21
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You company wants its top 10customers in August to receive a best-selling product at a reduce price.
You need to establish a price.
Which two actions should you perform to configure Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade for this task? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Set up the item sales price in the released product table.
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QUESTION 41
Which policy statement will be applied to neighbor 172.16.4.2?

A.    policy-statement all and policy -statement agg
B.    policy-statement agg
C.    policy-statement all and policy -statement atat
D.    policy-statement atat

Answer: A

QUESTION 42
You are attempting to configure BGP peering to a new service provider. The BGP peering state is stuck in the active state.
What are two reasons for this happening? (Choose two)

A.    the local autonomous system number is not configure
B.    the origin ID is not configure
C.    The peer IP address is incorrect
D.    The peer autonomous number is incorrect.

Answer: C

QUESTION 43
You manage your company enterprises network using EX series switches. Your company wants to use Q in Q tunneling to connect remote customer sites together. Which statement is correct about the scenario?

A.    You must enable L2PTto tunnel layer 2 protocol traffic
B.    The outside layer 2 frame is popped by the penultimate switch
C.    Customer traffic is tunneled through the network using the C VLAN ID
D.    The default Ethernet value is 0x9100

Answer: A

QUESTION 44
Which two statements about VSTP on EX series switches are connect? (Choose two)

A.    All VLANS beyond the first 64 will not be supported by VSTP
B.    VSTP automatically assigns each VLAN to one spanning tree instances
C.    VSTP must be used to intemperate with MVRP
D.    VSTP must be used to intemperate with PVST+

Answer: BD

QUESTION 45
Referring to the exhibit, R2 is exporting the route for server1 as a Type 2 external route and R6 is exporting the route for server 1 as a type 1 external route in OSPF.
Which path is taken to reach server-1 from user1?

A.    R1>R3>R6
B.    R1>R2
C.    R1>R4>R6
D.    R1>R2>R4>R6

Answer: D

QUESTION 46
Which statement is correct regarding the isolated ports?

A.    isolated ports are trunk ports that have layer 2 connectivity with all other ports
B.    isolated port are access ports that only have layer 2 connectivity with other isolated port
C.    isolated port are access port that only have layer 2 connectivity with promosious ports
D.    isolated port are trunk ports that have layer 2 connectivity with all community ports

Answer: C

QUESTION 47
Your network provider supports multicast traffic but your provider network does not. You want to allow multicast hosts outside of your network to receive multicast traffic sourced within your network.

How would you satisfy this requirement?

A.    Use MSDP peering with your provider.
B.    Use AutoVPN to connect to the remote hosts.
C.    Use an MP-BGP session to your provider to pass multicast traffic.
D.    Use automatic multicast tunnel gateway at the edge of your network.

Answer: D

QUESTION 48
Click the exhibit.

481

Referring to the exhibit, traffic handled by the s-1 scheduler is out of profile. Assuming bandwidth is available in this scenario, which statement is correct?

A.    Traffic handled by the s-1 scheduler is serviced immediately after traffic being serviced by the s-4 scheduler.
B.    Traffic handled by the s-1 scheduler is serviced immediately before traffic being serviced by the s-4 scheduler.
C.    Traffic handled by the s-1 scheduler is serviced immediately before traffic being serviced by the s-2 scheduler.
D.    Traffic handled by the s-1 scheduler is serviced immediately after traffic being serviced by the s-2 scheduler.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 21
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Which of the following methods would BEST assist the developers in determining if any unknown vulnerabilities are present?

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QUESTION 21
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QUESTION 61
When an 802.11 client roams what device decides when to move the client to another AP?

A.    Aruba AP
B.    Aruba controller
C.    Client
D.    Radius Server
E.    Router

Answer: C

QUESTION 62
A customer has a remote AP deployment, where each remote AP has an IPSEC VPN tunnel with L2TP to the controller. 1 of the remote APs is stuck in the user table and hasn’t yet transitioned to the AP active table in the controller. The customer suspects that the AP is not setting up its VPN connection successfully. Which of the following commands might be useful in troubleshooting this? (Choose three.)

A.    Logging level debugging security process localdb
B.    Logging level debugging security process l2tp
C.    Logging level debugging security process dot1x
D.    Logging level debugging security process crypto
E.    Logging level debugging security process vpn

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 63
A client Roams from one Local controller-1 to another Local controller-2. The controllers are in different subnets and L3 Mobility is enabled. How is the client traffic sent back to Local-controller-1?

A.    IP-IP tunneled
B.    FTP
C.    Multicast
D.    L2 GRE Tunnel
E.    Routed locally

Answer: D

QUESTION 64
Which of the following statements is true of Spectrum Mode?

A.    No licenses are required to run an AP in Spectrum mode
B.    Spectrum mode can only be configured for one AP at a time
C.    An AP can be in spectrum mode for both 2.4 and 5G bands at the same time
D.    An AP can be placed in Spectrum Mode via the Spectrum Profile
E.    Spectrum mode can be configured from the GUI under AP installation

Answer: C

QUESTION 65
The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP. If machine authentication fails and user authentication passes, which role will be assigned?

651

652

A.    employee
B.    guest
C.    denyall
D.    logon
E.    no role is assigned

Answer: B

QUESTION 66
Referring to the above screen capture, on which controller can you add an administrative user and assign a controller management role?

661

A.    Controller 10.1.10.100 only
B.    Controller 10.1.20.100 and 10.254.1.3 only
C.    All three Controllers
D.    must be done in the RADIUS server
E.    Controller 10.254.1.101 only

Answer: C

QUESTION 67
Which command will show all client association history?

A.    show mobile trail current (ip address)
B.    show ip mobile trail (ip address)
C.    show ap client status (mac address)
D.    show current client ip (ip address)
E.    show client ip (ip address) mobility

Answer: B

QUESTION 68
What is the total number of charts you can simultaneously monitor in a spectrum dashboard?

A.    3
B.    4
C.    8
D.    9
E.    12

Answer: E

QUESTION 69
Which is a Device Specific Attribute that can be evaluated in a user derivation rule?

A.    user login name
B.    authentication server
C.    location by AP Name
D.    controller Loopback address
E.    controller IP

Answer: C

QUESTION 70
The Controller wizard enables which of the following controller clock configurations?(Choose three)

A.    NTP to a time server
B.    Set time zone
C.    Daylight savings time
D.    Only GMT can be configured
E.    Manual configuration of date and time

Answer: ABE

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QUESTION 21
Which three options are actions to realize the benefits? (Choose three.)

A.    Progress should be measured once the solution is deployed.
B.    Should take into account the relationship with the stakeholder.
C.    Should focus on measurable results.
D.    May be based on assumptions and risks.
E.    Include actions on the way, plus those already identified.

Answer: CDE

QUESTION 22
Which three options are stages of the Benefit Realization Management? (Choose three.)

A.    Benefits accounting.
B.    Benefits identification.
C.    Benefits roles.
D.    Benefit measurement, ranking and prioritization.
E.    Benefits monitoring and review.

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 23
Which of the following describes a Viewpoint?

A.    A perspective expressed by one or more managers who share the same or similar role.
B.    A perspective expressed by one or more customers who may or may not share the same or similar role.
C.    The perspective or related set of concerns experienced by a group of stakeholders.
D.    An informal summary of project outcomes used in the management reporting and decision making process.

Answer: C

QUESTION 24
How might an understanding of business and technology dependencies assist in the development of a phased implementation roadmap?

A.    By enabling the creation of a risk mitigation plan to mitigate or reduce risk.
B.    By determining the level of technical and business support needed to implement each roadmap component.
C.    By helping to determine the most effective order in which each technology component should be implemented.
D.    By focusing the Solution Architect onto the most mission-critical aspects of the solution first.

Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Which three options are financial challenges when determining the financial value of a Cisco solution? (Choose three.)

A.    Financial resources are distributed across functional areas.
B.    Long term and cycles for deployment and adoption.
C.    Cost efficiencies and reductions.
D.    Difficulty to determine NPV.
E.    Increase revenue and margins.

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 26
Which option is the best description for NPV?

A.    The adoption of licensed third-party solutions and services may result in a lower NPV.
B.    The NPV takes into consideration the direct and indirect costs of maintaining technology solutions and services.
C.    NPV is factored into the ROI calculation.
D.    The opportunity to reduce NPV is a measureable business outcome and benefit to the customer business.
E.    The NPV of technology solutions and services indicates the monetary value that those solutions bring to the business.

Answer: E

QUESTION 27
Which two options are direct financial benefits of the outcome-based sales? (Choose two.)

A.    Increased NPV.
B.    Lower project costs.
C.    Process efficiencies.
D.    Faster time to market for new solutions.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 28
Which two options are indirect financial benefits of the outcome-based sales? (Choose two.)

A.    Increased NPV.
B.    Lower project costs.
C.    Process efficiencies.
D.    Faster time to market for new solutions.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 29
Which two options are true regarding chargeback and showback? (Choose two.)

A.    Chargeback is an internal billing mechanism where departments directly pay for their consumption of IT services.
B.    Showback is an internal billing mechanism where departments directly pay for their consumption of IT services.
C.    Chargeback provides departments with visibility to their consumption of IT services but do not directly pay for the services.
D.    Showback provides departments with visibility to their consumption of IT services but do not directly pay for the services.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 30
What is the purpose of the Solution Business Impact Index?

A.    It is a number that identifies how sooner in the implementation roadmap should the benefits appear.
B.    It is a matrix that lists the solutions and business priorities of the customer, and ranks the solutions according to the impact they generate.
C.    It is a chart to display the importance of Cisco technologies.
D.    It is an alternative to the business outcome-based sales approach.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 21
Which deployment model is the best solution for a simple installation with the most secure connection outside the production network forCisco Meeting Server?

A.    Scaled and Resilient Server Deployment
B.    Single Split Server Deployment
C.    Single Combined Server Deployment
D.    Scaled and Combined Server Deployment

Answer: C

QUESTION 22
How is TIP defined?

A.    TIP multiplexes RTP ports to reduce the number of video streams required in calls between any H.323 and SIP endpoint. Whether they are immersive endpoints or non- immersive endpoints.
B.    TIP allows communication between any immersive and non-immersive endpoint.
C.    TIP allows communication between any endpoint, regardless of what protocol is used
D.    TIP multiplexes RTP ports to reduce the number of video streams required in cars between immersive endpoints.

Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which statement is true regarding TMS permissions?

A.    TMS Permissions are assigned to groups, and users are added to the groups.
B.    TMS Permissions are directly assigned to individual users.
C.    TMS Permissions are configured in Active Directory, which is then synched to TMS.
D.    TMS Permissions can be imported from the Expressway or CUCM.

Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which statement is true about APIs and SDKs?

A.    SDKs specify how software components should interact
B.    APIs consist of a set of SDKs, sample code, technical notes, and debugging facilities.
C.    SDKs can be used without APIs.
D.    APIs can be used without SDKs.

Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which type of API is used to configure settings on Cisco Meeting Server?

A.    REST
B.    XML-RPC
C.    SOAP
D.    XMP-RPC

Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which is a protocol used in the H.323 standard?

A.    802.1
B.    SIP
C.    Q.931
D.    SDP

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/voice/H-323/configuration/15-mt/voi-h323-overview.html#GUID-8130E479-580A-4450-91EA-A1CDCE96548A

QUESTION 27
What is a function of a call control solution?

A.    To make, monitor and maintain calls
B.    To provide an audio and video interface for the user
C.    To join 3 or more participants in a meeting.
D.    To schedule calls

Answer: A

QUESTION 28
What do Enterprise Settingson Cisco Spark determine?

A.    Where user information comes from.
B.    BOT integration
C.    API integration
D.    How Connectors are integrated in a hybrid deployment.

Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which management solution works with endpointsregistered to UCM, VCS and Expressway?

A.    Prime
B.    CMA
C.    CMR
D.    TMS

Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which premise-based conferencing solution supports Skype for Business and WebRTC?

A.    TelePresence Server
B.    Spark
C.    Cisco Meeting Server
D.    Cisco WebEx

Answer: B

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QUESTION 21
You assign security roles to an owner team and each user on the team.
What effect does the security role that is assigned to the team have on the individual team members?

A.    The permissions for the user are used instead of those of the team.
B.    The user is granted the least restrictive permissions of the two roles.
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QUESTION 21
Which two attacks target the data link layer in a switched environment? (Choose two.)

A.    VLAN attacks
B.    IP source routing
C.    MAC address floods
D.    DHCP-based IP redirection attacks
E.    Spanning-tree attacks

Answer: CE

QUESTION 22
Which statement about IPsec and IPv6 is true?

A.    IPsec is available only with IPv6.
B.    IPsec support is mandatory in IPv4.
C.    IPsec support is mandatory in IPv6.
D.    In order to use IPsec with IPv6, IPv6 must be tunneled over IPv4.

Answer: C

QUESTION 23
Which two features of AMP are available in Cisco AMP for Networks that are not available in Cisco AMP for Content alone? (Choose two.)

A.    trajectory
B.    retrospective security
C.    dynamic analytics
D.    behavioral indications of compromise
E.    fuzzy fingerprinting
F.    one-to-one signature

Answer: AD

QUESTION 24
Which solution is the most effective for virus cleanup?

A.    Cisco Firewall with Authorized Access
B.    Cisco DMVPN with GRE Tunnels
C.    Cisco Easy VPN with Remote-Site Device Management
D.    Cisco AMP for Networks with File Trajectory
E.    Cisco SIO with Increased Visibility
F.    Cisco ISE with Automated Policy Tuning

Answer: D

QUESTION 25
What is the primary reason that customers need content security today?

A.    Companies are more spread out than ever before.
B.    Organizations need to block high-risk websites.
C.    Network traffic is growing at an exponential rate.
D.    Storage is moving from on-premises to cloud-based.
E.    More business is done using the web and email than ever before.

Answer: E

QUESTION 26
Which feature of content security enables administrators to block Facebook videos while allowing posts and messages?

A.    dynamic content analysis
B.    Cisco Application Visibility and Control
C.    centralized management and reporting
D.    encryption

Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Reputation filtering performs which two functions? (Choose two.)

A.    rates each site based on a reputation score
B.    automatically updates devices based on threats
C.    tunes itself according to relevance to the network
D.    communicates with Cisco SenderBase, which is a common security database
E.    analyzes in-depth parameters for anything that requests network access

Answer: AD

QUESTION 28
If a customer complains that employees access websites for work but then waste time with games and videos, which solution should you suggest, and why?

A.    Cisco AMP, for protection before, during, and after attacks
B.    Cisco WSA, for its URL filtering ability
C.    Cisco RSA, for its data loss prevention
D.    Cisco WSA, for its application visibility and control
E.    Cisco ESA, for its global threat operations
F.    Cisco ESA, for its antivirus capabilities

Answer: D

QUESTION 29
What is the main reason that customers need Cisco Secure Access?

A.    Companies use more social media than ever before.
B.    Organizations need to block high-risk websites.
C.    Network traffic is growing at an exponential rate.
D.    Storage is moving from on-premises to cloud-based.
E.    More devices are connecting on and off campus.
F.    More business is done using the web and email than ever before.

Answer: E

QUESTION 30
In the Cisco TrustSec “User to Data Center Access Control” use case, which users typically have access to the company data center?

A.    suppliers
B.    employees
C.    noncompliant users
D.    guests

Answer: B

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QUESTION 61
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B.    stop and start Cisco Unified CCX services
C.    view syslog messages
D.    perform backup and restore functions
E.    monitor the health of the Cisco Unified CCX system

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QUESTION 21
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QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit which two statement about the given IPV6 ZBF configuration are true? (Choose two)

211

A.    It provides backward compability with legacy IPv6 inspection
B.    It inspect TCP, UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic from Z1 to Z2.
C.    It inspect TCP, UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic from Z2 to Z1.
D.    It inspect TCP,UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic in both direction between z1 and z2.
E.    It passes TCP, UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic from z1 to z2.
F.    It provide backward compatibility with legacy IPv4 inseption.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 22
In which class of applications security threads does HTTP header manipulation reside?

A.    Session management
B.    Parameter manipulation
C.    Software tampering
D.    Exception managements

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.cgisecurity.com/owasp/html/ch11s04.html
Session management doesn’t have anything to do with HTTP header

QUESTION 23
What is the most commonly used technology to establish an encrypted HTTP connection?

A.    the HTTP/1.1 Upgrade header
B.    the HTTP/1.0 Upgrade header
C.    Secure Hypertext Transfer Protocol
D.    HTTPS

Answer: D

QUESTION 24
What functionality is provided by DNSSEC?

A.    origin authentication of DNS data
B.    data confidentiality of DNS queries and answers
C.    access restriction of DNS zone transfers
D.    storage of the certificate records in a DNS zone file

Answer: A

QUESTION 25
What are the two mechanism that are used to authenticate OSPFv3 packets?(Choose two)

A.    MD5
B.    ESP
C.    PLAIN TEXT
D.    AH
E.    SHA

Answer: BD

QUESTION 26
You have been asked to configure a Cisco ASA appliance in multiple mode with these settings:

(A) You need two customer contexts, named contextA and contextB
(B) Allocate interfaces G0/0 and G0/1 to contextA
(C) Allocate interfaces G0/0 and G0/2 to contextB
(D) The physical interface name for G0/1 within contextA should be “inside”.
(E) All other context interfaces must be viewable via their physical interface names.

If the admin context is already defined and all interfaces are enabled, which command set will complete this configuration?

A.    context contextA
config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
context contextB
config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 visible
B.    context contexta
config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
context contextb
config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 visible
C.    context contextA
config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 invisible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
context contextB
config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 invisible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 invisible
D.    context contextA
config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
context contextB
config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2
E.    context contextA
config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
context contextB
config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 visible

Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which statement about the cisco anyconnect web security module is true ?

A.    It is VPN client software that works over the SSl protocol.
B.    It is an endpoint component that is used with smart tunnel in a clientless SSL VPN.
C.    It operates as an NAC agent when it is configured with the Anyconnect VPN client.
D.    It is deployed on endpoints to route HTTP traffic to SCANsafe

Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which two statements about the SeND protocol are true? (Choose two)

A.    It uses IPsec as a baseline mechanism
B.    It supports an autoconfiguration mechanism
C.    It must be enabled before you can configure IPv6 addresses
D.    It supports numerous custom neighbor discovery messages
E.    It counters neighbor discovery threats
F.    It logs IPv6-related threats to an external log server

Answer: BE

Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ips/6-1/configuration/guide/cli/cliguide/cli_signature_engines.html#wp1141808

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QUESTION 21
What IOS commands display MPLS label mapping on an LSR?

A.    Show mpls ldp parameters
B.    Show mpls ldp bindings
C.    Show mpls forwading-table
D.    Show mpls ldp discovery
E.    Show mpls ldp neighbor detail

Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Drag and Drop Questions

221

Answer:

222

QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. The vrf MAINT has been provisioned and used by the Service Provider management network. The engineer discovers that syslog messages are not being received on the syslog server. IP reachability has been validated using ping.
Which issue in the configuration must be corrected?

231

A.    logging on must include the vrf MAINT keyword.
B.    logging host must include the vrf MAINT keyword.
C.    The logging facility must be configured for syslog processing.
D.    The route targets that are configured do not match the route distinguisher.

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2sr/12_2sra/feature/guide/srvrfslg.html#wp1059076

QUESTION 24
Which are the three header fields that affect how Equal-Cost Multipath hashes traffic flow into interface groups? (Choose three.)

A.    source MAC address
B.    source port
C.    source IP address
D.    destination IP address
E.    IP protocol ID
F.    destination MAC address

Answer: BCD

QUESTION 25
An R1 router requires an equal load balancing to reach the prefix 192.168.0.0/16 over two exit points: through R2 and R3 routers. Which two options must be configured on the R1 router to achieve this goal? (Choose two.)

A.    The BGP maximum path feature must be configured on R1.
B.    The BGP PIC core must be enabled on R1
C.    Weight, local-pref, MED, as-path length, origin, and the BGP next-hop IGP cost must be the same for the R2 and R3 IBGP updates to R1.
D.    The BGP Link Bandwidth feature must be applied on R1.
E.    BGP extended community exchange must be enabled between IBGP neighbors.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
BGP link-bandwidth is for unequal-cost routes.

QUESTION 26
A company is deciding between an HVR and SVR solution in order to finalize a virtualization project proposal. Which is an advantage of a HVR solution versus a SVR solution?

A.    A HVR solution implements dedicated data plane resources.
B.    A HVR solution implements shared control plane resources.
C.    A HVR solution introduces significant contention of resources.
D.    A HVR solution implements dedicated chassis resources.

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/solutions/collateral/ns341/ns524/ns562/ns573/white_paper_c11-512753_ns573_Networking_Solutions_White_Paper.html

QUESTION 27
Which three of these are optical channel data unit (ODU) overhead fields? (Choose three)

A.    general communication channel 0 (GCC0)
B.    section monitoring
C.    reserved (RES)
D.    general communication channels 1 and 2 (GCC1 GCC2)
E.    tandem connection monitoring activation deactivation (TCM ACT)

Answer: CDE

QUESTION 28
Which three modes are the operating of HDLC? (Choose three)

A.    asynchronous balanced mode (ABM)
B.    normal response mode (NRM)
C.    normal peer mode (NPM)
D.    asynchronous client mode (ACM)
E.    asynchronous response mode (ARM)

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
Asynchronous response mode is an HDLC addition[1] for use over full-duplex links. While retaining the primary/secondary distinction, it allows the secondary to transmit at any time. Asynchronous balanced mode added the concept of a combined terminal which can act as both a primary and a secondary. There are some subtleties about this mode of operation; while many features of the protocol do not care whether they are in a command or response frame, some do, and the address field of a received frame must be examined to determine whether it contains a command (the address received is ours) or a response (the address received is that of the other terminal).

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QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. A user is going through a series of dialing steps on a SIP Type B IP phone (for example, a Cisco 7975) to call an SCCP IP phone. Both phones are registered to the same Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. Assuming the calling SIP phone is associated with a SIP Dial Rule with a pattern value of 2001, which statement about the call setup process of this call is true?

211

A.    Each digit will arrive at Cisco Unified Communications Manager in a SIP NOTIFY message as a KPML
event, and Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend the call as soon as the collected digits
match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, bypassing class of service configuration on both IP phones.
B.    Each digit will arrive at Cisco Unified Communications Manager in a SIP NOTIFY message as a KPML
event. When the collected digits match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, Cisco Unified Communications
Manager
will extend the call only if the class of service configuration on both phones permits this action.
C.    As soon as the user selects the Dial softkey, the SIP IP phone will forward all digits to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend
the call as soon as the collected digits match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, bypassing class of service
configuration on both IP phones.
D.    As soon as the user selects the Dial softkey, the SIP IP phone will forward all digits to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend
the call only if class of service configuration on both phones permits this action.
E.    The SIP IP phone will wait for the interdigit timer to expire, and then send all digits to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend
the call as soon as the collected digits match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, bypassing class of
service configuration on both IP phones.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Cisco Type B SIP Phones offer functionality based SIP INVITE Message. Every key the end user presses triggers an individual SIP message. The first event is communicated with a SIP INVITE, but subsequent messages use SIP NOTIFY messages. The SIP NOTIFY messages send KPML events corresponding to any buttons or soft keys pressed by the user. Cisco Type B SIP IP Phones with SIP dial rules operate in the same manner as Cisco Type A phones with dial rules.

QUESTION 22
What does a comma accomplish when it is used in a SIP Dial Rule pattern that is associated with a Cisco 9971 IP Phone that is registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A.    It inserts a 500-millisecond pause between digits.
B.    It causes the phone to generate a secondary dial tone.
C.    It is a delimiter and has no significant dialing impact.
D.    It indicates a timeout value of 5000 milliseconds.
E.    It is an obsolete parameter and will be ignored.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Comma is accepted in speed dial as delimiter and pause. -Comma used to delineate dial string, FAC, CMC, and post connect digits For post connect digits, commas insert a 2 second delay Commas may be duplicated to create longer delays

QUESTION 23
Which Call Admission Control mechanism is supported for the Cisco Extension Mobility Cross Cluster solution?

A.    Location CAC
B.    RSVP CAC
C.    H.323 gatekeeper
D.    intercluster Enhanced Location CAC
E.    visiting cluster’s LBM hub

Answer: B
Explanation:
Configuring extension mobility cross cluster (EMCC) is nothing you should take lightly. EMCC requires a lot of configuration parameters including the exporting and importing of each neighbor cluster’s X.509v3 digital certificates. EMCC is supported over SIP trunks only. Presence is another feature that’s only supported over SIP trunks. If you want to be able to perform scalable Call Admission Control (CAC) in a distributed multi- cluster call processing model, you will need to point an H.225 or Gatekeeper controlled trunk to an H.323 Gatekeeper for CAC… but if you want to support presence and EMCC between clusters and maintain CAC.

QUESTION 24
Which two Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP profile configuration parameters for a SIP intercluster trunk are mandatory to enable end-to-end RSVP SIP Preconditions between clusters? (Choose two.)

A.    Set the RSVP over SIP parameter to Local RSVP.
B.    Set the RSVP over SIP parameter to E2E.
C.    Set the SIP Rel1XX Options parameter to Disabled.
D.    Set the SIP Rel1XX Options parameter to Send PRACK If 1xx Contains SDP.
E.    Set the SIP Rel1XX Options parameter to Send PRACK for All 1xx Messages.
F.    Check the Fall Back to Local RSVP check box.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
Each Unified Communications Manager cluster and Unified CME should have the same configuration information. For example, Application ID should be the same on each Unified Communications Manager cluster and Unified CME. RSVP Service parameters should be the same on each Unified Communications Manager cluster.

QUESTION 25
What is the number of directory URIs with which a Cisco Unified Communications Manager directory number can be associated?

A.    1
B.    up to 2
C.    up to 3
D.    up to 4
E.    up to 5

Answer: E
Explanation:
Cisco Unified Communications Manager supports dialing using directory URIs for call addressing. Directory URIs look like email addresses and follow the username@host format where the host portion is an IPv4 address or a fully qualified domain name. A directory URI is a uniform resource identifier, a string of characters that can be used to identify a directory number. If that directory number is assigned to a phone, Cisco Unified Communications Manager can route calls to that phone using the directory URI. URI dialing is available for SIP and SCCP endpoints that support directory URIs.

QUESTION 26
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager partition will be associated with a directory URI that is configured for an end user with a primary extension?

A.    null
B.    none
C.    directory URI
D.    default
E.    any partition that the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administrator desires

Answer: C
Explanation:
Cisco Unified Communications Manager supports dialing using directory URIs for call addressing. Directory URIs look like email addresses and follow the username@host format where the host portion is an IPv4 address or a fully qualified domain name. A directory URI is a uniform resource identifier, a string of characters that can be used to identify a directory number. If that directory number is assigned to a phone, Cisco Unified Communications Manager can route calls to that phone using the directory URI. URI dialing is available for SIP and SCCP endpoints that support directory URIs.

QUESTION 27
Which Call Control Discovery function allows the local Cisco Unified Communications Manager to listen for advertisements from remote call-control entities that use the SAF network?

A.    CCD advertising service
B.    CCD requesting service
C.    SAF forwarder
D.    SAF enabled trunks
E.    CCD registration service

Answer: B
Explanation:
SAF and CCD will allow large distributed multi-cluster deployments to have the directory number (DN) ranges of each call routing element advertised dynamically over SAF. Cisco routers act as SAF Forwarders (SAFF), while the call routing elements (e.g. CUCM) act as clients that register with the routers to advertise their DN ranges and listen to the advertisements of other routers.

QUESTION 28
Which codec complexity mode, when deployed on Cisco IOS routers with DSPs using the C5510 chipset, supports the most G.711 calls per DSP?

A.    Low
B.    Medium
C.    High
D.    Secure
E.    Flex

Answer: E
Explanation:
The flex parameter allows the complexity to automatically adjust to either medium or high complexity depending on the needs of a call. For example, if a call uses the G.711 codec, the C5510 chipset automatically adjusts to the medium-complexity mode. However, if the call uses G.729, the C5510 chipset uses the high complexity mode

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QUESTION 21
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QUESTION 31
A security consultant decides to use multiple layers of anti-virus defense, such as end user desktop anti- virus and E-mail gateway. This approach can be used to mitigate which kind of attack?

A.    Forensic attack
B.    ARP spoofing attack
C.    Social engineering attack
D.    Scanning attack

Answer: C

QUESTION 32
Which of the following resources does NMAP need to be used as a basic vulnerability scanner covering several vectors like SMB, HTTP and FTP?

A.    Metasploit scripting engine
B.    Nessus scripting engine
C.    NMAP scripting engine
D.    SAINT scripting engine

Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Which of the following scanning tools is specifically designed to find potential exploits in Microsoft Windows products?

A.    Microsoft Security Baseline Analyzer
B.    Retina
C.    Core Impact
D.    Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer

Answer: D

QUESTION 34
A security analyst is performing an audit on the network to determine if there are any deviations from the security policies in place. The analyst discovers that a user from the IT department had a dial-out modem installed. Which security policy must the security analyst check to see if dial-out modems are allowed?

A.    Firewall-management policy
B.    Acceptable-use policy
C.    Remote-access policy
D.    Permissive policy

Answer: C

QUESTION 35
When creating a security program, which approach would be used if senior management is supporting and enforcing the security policy?

A.    A bottom-up approach
B.    A top-down approach
C.    A senior creation approach
D.    An IT assurance approach

Answer: B

QUESTION 36
Which of the following processes evaluates the adherence of an organization to its stated security policy?

A.    Vulnerability assessment
B.    Penetration testing
C.    Risk assessment
D.    Security auditing

Answer: D

QUESTION 37
A security consultant is trying to bid on a large contract that involves penetration testing and reporting. The company accepting bids wants proof of work so the consultant prints out several audits that have been performed. Which of the following is likely to occur as a result?

A.    The consultant will ask for money on the bid because of great work.
B.    The consultant may expose vulnerabilities of other companies.
C.    The company accepting bids will want the same type of format of testing.
D.    The company accepting bids will hire the consultant because of the great work performed.

Answer: B

QUESTION 38
Which type of scan is used on the eye to measure the layer of blood vessels?

A.    Facial recognition scan
B.    Retinal scan
C.    Iris scan
D.    Signature kinetics scan

Answer: B

QUESTION 39
What is the main reason the use of a stored biometric is vulnerable to an attack?

A.    The digital representation of the biometric might not be unique, even if the physical characteristic is unique.
B.    Authentication using a stored biometric compares a copy to a copy instead of the original to a copy.
C.    A stored biometric is no longer “something you are” and instead becomes “something you have”.
D.    A stored biometric can be stolen and used by an attacker to impersonate the individual identified by the biometric.

Answer: D

QUESTION 40
During a wireless penetration test, a tester detects an access point using WPA2 encryption. Which of the following attacks should be used to obtain the key?

A.    The tester must capture the WPA2 authentication handshake and then crack it.
B.    The tester must use the tool inSSIDer to crack it using the ESSID of the network.
C.    The tester cannot crack WPA2 because it is in full compliance with the IEEE 802.11i standard.
D.    The tester must change the MAC address of the wireless network card and then use the AirTraf tool to obtain the key.

Answer: A

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