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QUESTION 1
Given:

11

Which option enables the code to compile?

12

A.    Option A
B.    Option B
C.    Option C
D.    Option D

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Given the code fragment:

21

What is the result?

A.    [Robb, Rick, Bran]
B.    [Robb, Rick]
C.    [Robb, Bran, Rick, Bran]
D.    An exception is thrown at runtime.

Answer: A
Explanation:
After adding elements to names we have a list with four elements and element “Bran” repeated.
After removing element “Bran” we have a list with three elements [Robb, Rick, Bran].
remove method removes the first occurrence of the specified element from this list, if it is present. If the list does not contain the element, it is unchanged.
https://docs.oracle.com/javase/8/docs/api/java/util/ArrayList.html#remove-java.lang.Object-

QUESTION 3
Given:

31

What is the result?

A.    C B A
B.    C
C.    A B C
D.    Compilation fails at line n1 and line n2

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Given:

41

What is the result?

A.    3 4 5 6
B.    3 4 3 6
C.    5 4 5 6
D.    3 6 4 6

Answer: C
Explanation:
Since variable i is static, it is shared by all instances of X. When code executes x2.i = 5, x1.i = 5 too.
Since variable j isn’t static, each instance of X has its own copy of j.

QUESTION 5
Given the code fragment:

51

Which code fragment, when inserted at line 3, enables the code to print 10:20?

A.    int[] array = new int[2];
B.    int[] array;
array = int[2];
C.    int array = new int[2];
D.    int array [2] ;

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Given the code fragment:

61

What is the result?

A.    A B C Work done
B.    A B C D Work done
C.    A Work done
D.    Compilation fails

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which three are advantages of the Java exception mechanism?

A.    Improves the program structure because the error handling code is separated from the normal program function
B.    Provides a set of standard exceptions that covers all the possible errors
C.    Improves the program structure because the programmer can choose where to handle exceptions
D.    Improves the program structure because exceptions must be handled in the method in which they occurred
E.    Allows the creation of new exceptions that are tailored to the particular program being created

Answer: ACE
Explanation:
B is false. Standard exceptions not cover all possible errors.
D is false. Exceptions don’t have to be handled in the method in which they occurred.

QUESTION 8
Given the code from the Greeting.Java file:

81

Which set of commands prints Hello Duke in the console?

82

A.    Option A
B.    Option B
C.    Option C
D.    Option D

Answer: C
Explanation:
Source code file names must have .java suffixes to compile with javac
We interpret or run the program with “java <class name without suffix> arguments”
http://docs.oracle.com/javase/8/docs/technotes/tools/windows/javac.html
http://docs.oracle.com/javase/8/docs/technotes/tools/windows/java.html

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QUESTION 1
View the exhibit and examine the structure of the PRODUCTS table.

11

The PRODUCTS table contains 20 rows.
In the data that has been entered, the PROD_ID column contains only single digit values, PROD_NAMKhas a maximum of 5 characters, and RATE has 4 digit values for all rows.
Which two statements are true regarding the modifications that can be performed to the structure of the PRODUCTS table? (Choose two.)

A.    PROD_NAME size can be reduced from 10 to 5 characters.
B.    PROD_IP can be changed from CHAR to NUMBER data type.
C.    Now columns can be added only if they have NOT NULL constraint.
D.    PROD_RATE size can be changed from NUMBER (4) to NUMBER (6, 2).
E.    None of the existing columns can be dropped because they contain data.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
Your database instance is running. A user, SCOTT, starts a SQL*Plus session, and issues the following query;

SQL>SELECT *
FROM sales:

Which process would retrieve the result from the database and return it to the client program?

A.    user process
B.    server process
C.    System Monitor (SMON)
D.    Process Monitor (PMON)
E.    Checkpoint process (CKPT)

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true regarding Oracle Net? (Choose two.)

A.    It must reside only on the client for traditional client/server applications.
B.    It must reside only on the database server for web-based applications.
C.    It must reside on both the web server and database server for web-based applications.
D.    It must reside on both the client and database server for traditional client/server applications.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
You have some operatingsystem scripts on one server that need to run in response to certain changes in data in your Oracle Database.
The mostefficient way to implement this with Oracle Database 11g would be:

A.    Write a PL/SQL routine that connects to the remote server and calls the script.
B.    Create a script on the database server to perform the remote action and thatscript from adatabase trigger.
C.    Modify the script on the remote server to periodically chock for these data change in your Oracle database.
D.    Install an Oracle Scheduler Agent on the remote server and create job to be called from Oracle scheduler in response to a database server event.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
View the exhibit. You are creating a database by using Database Configuration Assistant (DHCIA). You have chosen the File System option as the storage mechanism.
What would be the result of choosing this option?

51

A.    Disk mirroring and striping would be done automatically.
B.    The database files would be managed by the operating system’s file system.
C.    DBCA would not save the database files by using Optimal File Architecture (OFA).
D.    The data files are automatically spread across all available storage devices to optimize performance and resource utilization.

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
View the exhibit. You plan to load the customer information that has been brought from a non Oracle database in the CUSTOMERS table in your database using the “Enterprise Manager Load Data From User File” option.
Which files should you create before using this option?

61

A.    only data file
B.    data file and log file
C.    data file and dump file
D.    data file and control file

Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true regarding the use of SQL in Oracle database? (Choose two)

A.    SQL is used to control access to the database and its objects.
B.    SQL can handle the creation of variables to store temporary values in a session.
C.    SQL allows a user to specify where the data is physically stored on the storage device.
D.    SQL is used to manipulate the data in binary file large objects (LOBs) that are stored outside the database.
E.    All SQL statements automatically use the optimizing that is available as part of Oracle database to determine the most efficient means of accessing data.

Answer: AE

QUESTION 8
You issue the following command as a DBA:

SQL> SHUTDOWN

What would be the outcome of the above command?

A.    It causes the instance to abort.
B.    It waits for all sessions to disconnect.
C.    It rolls back the current transactions and disconnects a/I sessions.
D.    It waits for the current transaction in each session to complete before disconnecting the sessions.

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Enterprise Manager beacons are a feature of which 11g management pack?

A.    Provisioning and Patch Automation
B.    Database Diagnostics
C.    Configuration Management
D.    Real User Experience Insight

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What is needed to establish monitoring of SSL-encrypted HTTP traffic?

A.    Monitoring of SSL traffic is not supported by RUEI.
B.    Installation of an SSL decryption card is required in the RUEI server.
C.    A copy of the SSL key and certificate need to be uploaded to RUEI.
D.    RUEI should negotiate a private SSL key/certificate pair with each Web server.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Examine the following commands:

# groupadd project
# mkdir /usr/share/project
# chown -r root.project /usr/share/project
# qpasswd -a scott project
# qpasswd -a foo project
# chmod 2775 /usr/share/project

Based on the commands, which statement is correct?

A.    Any new file created in the /usr/share/project folder by user scott will not be possible for foo to modify it.
B.    All members of the project group need the administrator’s help to change the file permission every time users write new files in the /usr/share/project folder.
C.    Files created by all members of the project group in the /usr/share/project folder will get the same group permission as the folder itself.
D.    The chmod command can only take a tree-digit argument.

Answer: A
Explanation:
*A permission of “2755” for a directory means that everyone has read and execute permission, while the file owner and members of the file’s group additionally have write permission. And any files or subdirectories created in that directory will inherit the parent directory’s group id.
Incorrect:
Not D: chmod 2775 is a valid command.

QUESTION 2
View the exhibit.

21

Examine the grub.conf file snippet in the Exhibit. Which statement is true if your Linux system boots by using this grub.conf file?

A.    GRUB will boot, by default, the first kernel entry of this grub.conf file.
B.    GRUB will prompt you to select the kernel to be booted because the default parameter is set to 0.
C.    GRUB will boot the kernel specified in the inittab file of the system.
D.    GRUB will boot, by default, the second kernel entry of this grub.conf file.

Answer: A
Explanation:
According the grub .conf file you have got 8 seconds to choose whether to boot the first entry.Now if you want to change, and let say you want the second grub entry as booting system by default, justchange the line:default=0 bydefault=1

QUESTION 3
The DBA tells you that the system is not overloaded but you can tell that the system us actively swapping. What command would you run to show this information to the DBA?

A.    # iotop
B.    # iostat 5 10
C.    # cat /proc/meminfo
D.    # vmstat 5 10

Answer: B
Explanation:
*iostat – Report Central Processing Unit (CPU) statistics and input/output statistics for devices, partitions and network filesystems (NFS).
*The iostat command is used for monitoring system input/output device loading by observing the time the devices are active in relation to their average transfer rates. The iostat command generates reports that can be used to change system configuration to better balance the input/output load between physical disks.
Incorrect:
Not A: Related to kernel and processes.
*iotop – simple top-like I/O monitor
*iotop watches I/O usage information output by the Linux kernel (requires 2.6.20 or later) and displays a table of current I/O usage by processes or threads on the system.
*iotop displays columns for the I/O bandwidth read and written by each process/thread during the sampling period. It also displays the percentage of time the thread/process spent while swapping in and while waiting on I/O. For each process, its I/O priority (class/level) is shown. In addition, the total I/O bandwidth read and written during the sampling period is displayed at the top of the interface.
Not C: related to RAM usage.
*The entries in the /proc/meminfo can help explain what’s going on with your memory usage, if you know how to read it.
*High-Level Statistics
MemTotal: Total usable ram (i.e. physical ram minus a few reserved bits and the kernel binary code)
MemFree: Is sum of LowFree+HighFree (overall stat) MemShared: 0; is here for compat reasons but always zero. Buffers: Memory in buffer cache. mostly useless as metric nowadays Cached: Memory in the pagecache (diskcache) minus SwapCache SwapCache: Memory that once was swapped out, is swapped back in but still also is in the swapfile (if memory is needed it doesn’t need to be swapped out AGAIN because it is already in the swapfile. This saves I/O)
Not D:vmstat – Report virtual memory statistics

QUESTION 4
View the cron job example below. How often will this cron job run?

0 */ 5 * * * command

A.    every 5 minutes
B.    every 5 hours
C.    every 5 days
D.    every 5th month

Answer: B
Explanation:
Execute a cron job every 5 Hours
The second field is for hours. If you specify * in this field, it runs every hour. If you specify */5 in the 2nd field, it runs every 5 hours as shown below.
0 */5 * * * /home/ramesh/backup.sh

QUESTION 5
What happens when the following command is run?

# authconfig – – passalgo = md5 – – update

A.    It produces the MD5 checksum of the input data.
B.    It configures the MD5 checksum for newly authored documents
C.    It converts the stdio input to MD5 algorithm.
D.    It changes the user password hashing algorithm to MD5.

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Identify the two kernels that are shipped with Oracle Linux 6.

A.    Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel
B.    Unbeatable Enterprise Kernel 11g
C.    Red Hat Compatible Kernel
D.    Linux Compatible Kernel
E.    Solaris 11 Container Kernel

Answer: AC
Explanation:
Oracle Linux 6 ships with two sets of kernel packages:
*Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel [kernel-uek-2.6.32-100.28.5.el6] Only available on the x86_64 (64 bit) platform
Installed and booted by default
*Red Hat compatible Kernel [kernel-2.6.32-71.el6] Installed by default

QUESTION 7
You have to find the default run level of your Oracle Linux system.
Which file will help you find this information?

A.    /boot/grub/grub.conf
B.    /etc/inittab
C.     /etc/rc.d/rc.sysinit
D.     /etc/rc.local
E.     /etc/rc.d/init.d

Answer: B
Explanation:
The default run level is specified in the /etc/inittab file.

QUESTION 8
On your Oracle Linux 6 system, you have to configure the eth0 network interface to 100 MB/sec, half duplex without trying to autonegotiate. Which command will help you configure this requirement?

A.    # ifconfig eth0 speed 100 autoneg off duplex half
B.    # ethtool interface eth0 speed 100 autoneg off duplex half
C.    # ifconfig interface eth0 speed 100 autoneg off duplex half
D.    # ethtool -seth0speed 100 autoneg off duplex half

Answer: D
Explanation:
When I have a device that is acting up, I tend to run: ethtool ethX, check the Supported link modes, the Link partner advertised link modes and the actual speed and Duplex. If my Supported link mode is set low (say 10/Half for some reason) but my switch supports 1000baseT/Full then I’ll use ethtool -s ethX to change my ethernet settings to 1000baseT/Full. Just about anything you see from: ethtool ethX, can be changed with ethtool -S ethX. In this case you would use the following:
ethtool -S eth0 speed 1000 duplex full autoneg on

QUESTION 9
As a system administrator, you run the system-config-network tool and make changes to the configuration. You change the hostname and the DNS search path settings. Which two files will these changes be written into?

A.    “/etc/sysconfig/network” and “/etc/resolv.conf” files
B.    “/etc/sysconfig/network” and “etc/nsswitch.conf/” files
C.    “/etc/sysconfig/netconfig” and “/etc/resolv.conf” files
D.    “etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/network” and “/etc/resolv.conf” files

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which two statements are correct about the Oracle ASMLib library?

A.    Oracle ASMLib is an optional support library for the Automatic Storage Management (ASM) feature.
B.    To use ASMLib library, you have to recompile it first for the Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel.
C.    Oracle Automatic Storage management (ASM) requires Oracle ASMLib library to function completely.
D.    Oracle ASMLib kernel driver is included in the Unbreakable Kernel.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
A (not C):ASMLib is an optional support library for the Automatic Storage Management feature of the Oracle Database.
ASMLib allows an Oracle Database using ASM more efficient and capable access to the disk groups it is using.
D (not B):The Oracle ASMLib kernel driver is now included in the Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel. No driver package needs to be installed when using this kernel.

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QUESTION 1
Which three statements are true regarding Flex ASM on a four-node cluster consisting of three-hub nodes and a leaf node?

A.    An ASM instance and database instances can coexist on the same hub node.
B.    A database instance on a hub node can be a client of an ASM instance running on any leaf node.
C.    A database instance on a hub node can be a client of an ASM instance running on any hub node.
D.    A database instance on a leaf node can be a client of an ASM instance running on any hub node.
E.    A database instance on a hub node uses an ASM instance as an I/O server when requesting I/O todiskgroups.
F.    ASM Cluster File System (ASFS) can only be deployed on hub nodes.

Answer: ACF
Explanation:
Architecturally Oracle Flex Cluster comprises of a Hub and Leaf architecture where in only the Hub nodes will only have direct access to Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR) and Voting Disk (VD). However application can access the database via Leaf nodes without ASM instance NOT running on Leaf nodes. The connection to the database is through Hub making it transparent for the application.
Note:
Hub Nodes are connected among them via private network and have direct access to the shared storage just like previous versions. These nodes are the ones that access the Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR) and Voting Disk (VD) directly.
Leaf Nodes are lighter and are not connected among them, neither accesses the shared storage like the Hub Nodes. Each Leaf Node communicates with the Hub Node that is attached to, and it is connected to the cluster via the Hub Node that is linked to.
http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/articles/database/flexasm-flexcluster-benefits-odb12c-2177371.html

QUESTION 2
Which two statements are true about initialization parameters for Clustered ASM instances?

A.    A change to ASM_DISKSTRING requires a restart of all ASM instances for the change to take effect.
B.    ASM_POWER_LIMIT controls he number of RDBMS instances that can access a disk group while it isbeing rebalanced.
C.    The ASM_DISKGROUP parameter is optional.
D.    The default value of INSTANT_TYPE is ASM.
E.    The maximum value of ASM_POWER_LIMIT is 1024.

Answer: CE
Explanation:
C: The default value of the ASM_DISKGROUPS parameter is a NULL string. If the parameter value is NULL or is not specified, then ASM does not mount any disk groups.
E: The ASM_POWER_LIMIT initialization parameter specifies the default power for disk rebalancing in a disk group. The range of values is 0 to 1024.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The ASM_POWER_LIMIT initialization parameter specifies the default power for disk rebalancing in a disk group. The range of values is 0 to 1024.
D: The default value of INSTANT_TYPE is RDBMS.
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e18951/asminst.htm#BHCEHJGA

QUESTION 3
Which three statements are true concerning diagnostic components and requirements of Oracle 12c Clusterware?

A.    There is one ologgered service for the cluster health monitor (CHM) on each cluster node regardless ofcluster size.
B.    The Grid Infrastructure Management Repository database must run on a hub node if Flex Clusters areused.
C.    There is one osysmond service for the cluster health monitor (CHM) on each cluster node regardless ofcluster size.
D.    The oclumon utility may be used to get and set parameters for the cluster health monitor (CHM) repository.
E.    The diagcollection.pl script must be run from the Grid home directory as the Grid infrastructure owner.
F.    The clusterware log files are stored inside the Grid Infrastructure Management Repository database usedby the cluster health monitor (CHM).

Answer: BCD
Explanation:
B: The Oracle Grid Infrastructure Management Repository Runs on one node in the cluster.This must be a Hub Node in an Oracle Flex Cluster configuration.
C: There is one system monitor service on every node. The system monitor service (osysmond) is a real-time, monitoring and operating system metric collection service that sends the data to the cluster logger service.
D: Use the oclumon manage command to view and change configuration information from the system monitor service.
Syntax
   oclumon manage -repos {{changeretentiontime time} | {changerepossize
   memory_size}} | -get {key1 [key2 …] | alllogger [-details] | mylogger [-details]}
Where changerepossize memory_size: Use this option to change the CHM repository space limit to a specified number of MB.
Note: The OCLUMON command-line tool is included with CHM and you can use it to query the CHM repository to display node-specific metrics for a specified time period. You can also use OCLUMON to perform miscellaneous administrative tasks, such as changing the debug levels, querying the version of CHM, and changing the metrics database size.
Incorrect Answers:
E: You can collect CHM data from any node in the cluster by running the Grid_home/bin/diagcollection.pl script on the node.
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CWADD/troubleshoot.htm#CHDIGCEC

QUESTION 4
PROD1, PROD2 and PROD3 are three active instances of the PROD database.
Examine these commands executed on PROD1:

SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS=200 SCOPE=MEMORY sid=’*’; SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS=100 SCOPE=MEMORY sid=’PROD1′;

Which statement is true?

A.    PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS will be 200 for all instances of PROD.
B.    PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS will be 100 for all instances of PROD.
C.    The second statement returns an error because this parameter must be identical for all isntances.
D.    PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS will be 200 for PROD2 and PROD3 and 100 for PROD1.

Answer: D
Explanation:
First SET PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS is set to 200 for all instances, then it is set to 100 for PROD1.

QUESTION 5
Which three events occur when a hub node fails in an Oracle Clusterware 12c Flex Cluster?

A.    The hub node is evicted from the cluster
B.    Leaf nodes connected to the failing hub node are reconnected to a surviving hub node without servicedisruption.
C.    Cluster resources running on leaf nodes connected to the failed hub node are relocated to one or moresurviving hub nodes.
D.    Cluster resources running on leaf nodes connected to the failed hub node are relocated to one or moresurviving leaf nodes.
E.    Cluster resources running on the failed hub node are relocated to one or more surviving hub nodes.
F.    Cluster resources running on the failed hub node are relocated to one or more surviving leaf nodes.
G.    Cluster resources running on the failed hub node are relocated to one or more surviving hub nodes or leafnodes, or both.

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
Incorrect Answers:
F, G: Leaf Nodes are different from standard Oracle Grid Infrastructure nodes, in that they do not require direct access to shared storage, but instead request data through Hub Nodes. Hub Nodes can run in an Oracle Flex Cluster configuration without having any Leaf Nodes as cluster member nodes, but Leaf Nodes must be members of a cluster that includes at least one Hub Node.
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CWADD/bigcluster.htm#CWADD92409

QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true about Flex ASM in a Flex Cluster?

A.    Oracle databases from releases older than 12c cannot use Flex ASM.
B.    ASFS may only be configured on a hub node running an ASM instance.
C.    Instances of ASM-based databases on hosts that have no ASM instance running, require Flex ASM.
D.    Flex ASM requires that I/Os requests be sent through an ASM Proxy Instance, regardless of database andASM instance placement in a cluster.
E.    Hub nodes with connections from multiple leaf nodes must run an ASM instance.

Answer: BE
Explanation:
B: Oracle Automatic Storage Management Cluster File System (Oracle ACFS) can only be run on the hub nodes, not the leaf nodes. Architecturally Oracle Flex Cluster comprises of a Hub and Leaf architecture where in only the Hub nodes will only have direct access to Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR) and Voting Disk (VD).
E: application can access the database via Leaf nodes without ASM instance NOT running on Leaf nodes. The connection to the database is through Hub making it transparent for the application.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The Oracle Flex ASM can be implemented in two ways:
Pure 12c Flex ASM (Same Version)
Both Grid Infrastructure (GI) and Database running on Oracle 12c
Pre Oracle 12c Mixed (Different Versions)
As normal ASM instance will run on each node with Flex configuration to support pre 12c database. The compatibility parameter of ASM disk group is used to manage the compatibility of between and among database instances. Advantage of this approach is that if an Oracle 12c database instance loses connectivity with an ASM instance, then the database connections will failover to another ASM instance on a different server. This failover is achieved by setting the cardinality to all.
http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/articles/database/flexasm-flexcluster-benefits-odb12c-2177371.html

QUESTION 7
Which three statements are true about the cluster file system archiving scheme?

A.    Each node can read only the archived logs written by itself.
B.    Nodes don’t use network to archive files.
C.    Each node can read the archive redo log files of the other nodes.
D.    Each node archives to a uniquely named local directory.
E.    Each node archives to a local directory with the same path on each cluster node.
F.    Each node writes to a single location on the cluster file system while archiving the redo log files.

Answer: BCF
Explanation:
Initialization Parameter Settings for the Cluster File System Archiving Scheme
In the cluster file system scheme, each node archives to a directory that is identified with the same name on all instances within the cluster database (/arc_dest, in the following example). To configure this directory, set values for the LOG_ARCH_DEST_1 parameter, as shown in the following example:
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/RACAD/rman.htm#RACAD320

QUESTION 8
Which three statements are true regarding multitenant architecture for RAC databases?

A.    One UNDO tablespace for each PDB is required.
B.    One UNDO tablespace for each instance is required.
C.    PDBs can have local temporary tablespaces.
D.    All the containers share the same SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces.
E.    You can open one, several, or all PDBs on one, several, or all CDB instances.

Answer: BCE
Explanation:
B: For an Oracle RAC CDB, one active undo tablespace exists for each instance.
C: From a physical perspective, a CDB has basically the same structure as a non-CDB, except that each PDB has its own set of tablespaces (including its own SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces) and data files.
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CNCPT/cdblogic.htm#CNCPT89268

QUESTION 9
Which two statements are true about ASM alias names?

A.    ASM files created using an alias name are not OMF files even if OMF is enabled.
B.    Alias file names cannot be used together with templates when creating tablespaces.
C.    ASM files created using an alias name are OMF files even if OMF is not enabled.
D.    Alias names can be stored only in user-defined directories.
E.    ASM files created using an alias name also have a fully qualified name and can be accessed by eithername.

Answer: AE

QUESTION 10
Which three statements are true concerning activation of a user-defined policy in Oracle 12c Clusterware?

A.    When a policy is first created, it is initially active.
B.    When a policy is activated, nodes may be reassigned to server pools based on the policy definition.
C.    An administrator-defined policy may be activated using the srvctl utility.
D.    When a policy is activated, resources cannot be automatically started to comply with the policy definition.
E.    When a policy is first created, it is initially inactive.
F.    When a policy is activated, resources can be automatically stopped to comply with the policy definition.

Answer: BCE
Explanation:
BE: You can activate policies when necessary, prompting Oracle Clusterware to reconfigure a server pool according to each policy’s configuration.
C: The following command activates the DayTime policy:
  $ crsctl modify policyset -attr “LAST_ACTIVATED_POLICY=DayTime”
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CWADD/pbmgmt.htm#CWADD92594

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QUESTION 211
RMAN is configured to create backupset backups for your database.
You issue the command to back up the database:

RMAN> BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG DELETE INPUT;

Which two statements are true about the backup performed by the command?

A.    Only the used blocks in the data files are backed up.
B.    It backs up all the data files and deletes obsolete backups after the backup is complete.
C.    It backs up only those archived log files that are not backed up at least once.
D.    It backs up all the archived log files and deletes the ones that were just backed up.
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QUESTION 201
Which three statements are true about unplugging a pluggable database (PDB)?

A.    A PDB must be in closed state before it can be unplugged.
B.    A PDB must have been opened at least once after creation.
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QUESTION 191
Which three methods can be used to create a pluggable database (PDB) in an existing multitenant container database (CDB)?

A.    Use PDB$SEED for creating a PDB.
B.    Use the DBMS_PDB package to plug a non-CDB into an existing CDB.
C.    Clone the existing PDB.
D.    Use Enterprise Manager Database Express to create a PDB in an existing CDB.
E.    Use the DBMS_PDB package to plug a pre-Oracle 12c database into an existing CDB.

Answer: ABC
Explanation:
Use the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to create a pluggable database (PDB).
This statement enables you to perform the following tasks:
* Create a PDB by using the seed as a template
Use the create_pdb_from_seed clause to create a PDB by using the seed in the multitenant container database (CDB) as a template.
* Create a PDB by plugging an unplugged PDB or a non-CDB into a CDB Use the create_pdb_from_xml clause to plug an unplugged PDB or a non-CDB into a CDB, using an XML metadata file.
* Create a PDB by cloning an existing PDB or non-CDB
Use the create_pdb_clone clause to create a PDB by copying an existing PDB or non-CDB and then plugging the copy into the CDB.
References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/SQLRF/statements_6010.htm

QUESTION 192
You are connected to a recovery catalog and target database.
You execute the command:

RMAN> CATALOG START WITH `/disk1/backups’;

Which statement is true?

A.    Only valid data file copies, existing in the /disk1/backups directory, are cataloged.
B.    Only valid backup pieces and archived logs, existing in the /disk1/backups directory, are cataloged.
C.    It lists all data file copies, backup pieces, and achieved logs cataloged in the recovery catalog in the / directory and its subdirectories.
disk1/backups
D.    It lists and catalogs all valid data file copies, backup pieces, and archived logs that exist in all directory paths with the prefix /disk1/backups and their subdirectories.

Answer: D
Explanation:
If you have data file copies, backup pieces, or archived logs on disk, then you can catalog them in the recovery catalog with the CATALOG command.
The following command catalogs all files in all of these directories, because /disk1/backups is a prefix for the paths for all of these directories:
CATALOG START WITH ‘/disk1/backups’;
To catalog only backups in the /disk1/backups directory, the correct command is as follows:
CATALOG START WITH ‘/disk1/backups/’;
References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/BRADV/rcmcatdb.htm

QUESTION 193
A database instance uses an SPFILE. Examine the parameter:

1931

You plan to multiplex the control file to a new location, /u01/app/oracle/oradata/cdb1/disk3/ control03.ctl/.
Examine the possible steps that are in random order:

1. Shut down the database instance.
2. Issue ALTER SYSTEM SET CONTROL_FILES= `/u01/app/oracle/oradata/cdb1/disk1/ control01.ctl, /u01/app/oracle/oradata/cdb1/disk2/control02, /u01/app/oracle/ oradata/cdb1/disk3/control03.ctl’ SCOPE=SPFILE;.
3. Issue ALTER SYSTEM SET CONTROL_FILES=
`/u01/app/oracle/oradata/cdb1/disk1/control01.ctl, /u01/app/oracle/oradata/ cdb1/disk2/control02.ctl, /u01/app/oracle/oradata/cdb1/disk3/control03.ctl’;.
4. Copy the control file from the existing location to `/u01/app/oracle/oradata/cdb1/disk3/ control03.ctl’.
5. Mount the database.
6. Open the database.

Identify the required steps in the correct order to accomplish the task.

A.    3, 4
B.    2, 1, 4, 6
C.    3, 1, 4, 6
D.    1, 5, 2, 4, 6
E.    2, 6

Answer: C
Explanation:
You can create an additional control file copy for multiplexing by copying an existing control file to a new location and adding the file name to the list of control files.
Similarly, you rename an existing control file by copying the file to its new name or location, and changing the file name in the control file list. In both cases, to guarantee that control files do not change during the procedure, shut down the database before copying the control file.
To add a multiplexed copy of the current control file or to rename a control file:
1. Shut down the database.
2. Copy an existing control file to a new location, using operating system commands.
3. Edit the CONTROL_FILES parameter in the database initialization parameter file to add the new control file name, or to change the existing control filename.
4. Restart the database.

QUESTION 194
You accidentally drop the CUSTOMERS table, and then recover it by using the FLASHBACK TABLE command.

Which two statements are true about the dependent objects of the CUSTOMERS table?

A.    Only the primary key constraint created for the table is flashed back, whereas all other indexes must be retrieved separately.
B.    All the constraints defined on the table, except the referential integrity constraints, are flashed back.
C.    All the triggers associated with the table are flashed back but are disabled.
D.    Materialized views that use the CUSTOMERS table are flashed back.
E.    LOB segments associated with the CUSTOMERS table are flashed back.

Answer: BE
Explanation:
B: Oracle Database retrieves all indexes defined on the table except for bitmap join indexes, and all triggers and constraints defined on the table except for referential integrity constraints that reference other tables.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Flashback Table restores tables while automatically maintaining associated attributes such as current indexes, triggers, and constraints, and in this way enabling you to avoid finding and restoring database- specific properties.
Furthermore. indexes on table that exist currently are reverted and reflect the state of the table at the Flashback point.
C: By default, the database disables triggers on the affected table before performing a FLASHBACK TABLE operation. After the operation, the database returns the triggers to the state they were in before the operation (enabled or disabled). To keep triggers enabled during the flashback of the table, add an ENABLE TRIGGERS clause to the FLASHBACK TABLE
D: Flashback Table operations are not valid for the following type objects: tables that are part of a cluster, materialized views, Advanced Queuing (AQ) tables, static data dictionary tables, system tables, remote tables, object tables, nested tables, or individual table partitions or subpartitions.
References: Oracle Database, Backup and Recovery User’s Guide, 12 Release 2 (January 2017), page 18-11

QUESTION 195
Which three statements are true about the database instance startup after an instance failure?

A.    The RECO process recovers the uncommitted transactions at the next instance startup.
B.    Online redo log files and archived redo log files are required to complete the rollback stage of instance recovery.
C.    Uncommitted changes are rolled back to ensure transactional consistency.
D.    The SMON process coordinates the database recovery.
E.    Media recovery is required to complete the database recovery.
F.    Changes committed before the failure, which were not written to the data files, are re-applied.

Answer: ACD
Explanation:
A: Occasionally a database closes abnormally with one or more distributed transactions in doubt (neither committed nor rolled back). When you reopen the database and recovery is complete, the RECO background process automatically, immediately, and consistently resolves any in-doubt distributed transactions.
C: Crash and instance recovery involve two distinct operations: rolling forward the current, online datafiles by applying both committed and uncommitted transactions contained in online redo records, and then rolling back changes made in uncommitted transactions to their original state.
D: The SMON background process performs instance recovery, applying online redo automatically. No user intervention is required.
References:
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28318/startup.htm https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CNCPT/startup.htm

QUESTION 196
You want to migrate your Oracle 11g database as a pluggable database (PDB) in a multitenant container database (CDB).

Examine the steps required to perform the migration:

1. Use Data Pump export to perform a full transportable export on the source database with the export parameter VERSION=12.
2. Place all tablespaces in read-only mode on the source database.
3. Upgrade the source database to Oracle Database 12c.
4. Copy the dump file and data files to the desired location in the target database.
5. Create a new PDB in the target CDB.
6. Synchronize the PDB on the target CDB.
7. Use Data Pump import on the new PDB by using the full transportable import options.

Identify the required steps in the correct order.

A.    1, 5, 4, 7, and 6
B.    3, 2, 5, 1, 4, and 7
C.    2, 5, 1, 4, 7, and 6
D.    2, 1, 3, 5, 7, and 6

Answer: C
Explanation:
This example is a dumpfile-based full transportable export/import operation. In this case the metadata from the source database is exported to a dump file, and both the dump file and the tablespace data files are transferred to a new system. The steps would be as follows:
* (2) Set user tablespaces in the source database to READ ONLY.
* (5) Create a CDB on the destination system, including a PDB into which you will import the source database.
* (1) From the Oracle Database 11g Release 2 (11.2.0.3) environment, export the metadata and any data residing in administrative tablespaces from the source database using the FULL=Y and TRANSPORTABLE=ALWAYS parameters. Note that the VERSION=12 parameter is required only when exporting from an Oracle Database 11g Release 2 database.
* (4) Copy the tablespace data files from the source system to the destination system.
* (7) In the Oracle Database 12c environment, connect to the pre-created PDB and import the dump file.
References: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/upgrade/upgrading-oracle-database-wp-12c-1896123.pdf, page 11

QUESTION 197
RMAN is connected to a target database instance and an auxiliary instance. You execute the command:

1971

What is the outcome?

A.    RMAN uses the push method to transfer image copies.
B.    RMAN uses the push method to transfer backup sets.
C.    RMAN uses the pull method to restore files using backup sets.
D.    RMAN uses the pull method to restore files using image copies.

Answer: C
Explanation:
When RMAN performs active database duplication using backup sets, a connection is established with the source database and the auxiliary database. The auxiliary database then connects to the source database through Oracle Net Services and retrieves the required database files from the source database. This method of active database duplication is also to as the pull-based method.
Example:
DUPLICATE TARGET DATABASE TO dupdb
FROM ACTIVE DATABASE
PASSWORD FILE
SPFILE
NOFILENAMECHECK;
Incorrect Answers:
A, B, D: When active database duplication is performed using image copies, after RMAN establishes a connection with the source database, the source database transfers the required database files to the auxiliary database. Using image copies may require additional resources on the source database. This method is referred to as the push-based method of active database duplication.
References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/BRADV/rcmdupdb.htm

QUESTION 198
Which two can be backed up by using RMAN in a database that is in ARCHIVELOG mode?

A.    online redo log files while the database is open
B.    data files while the database is open
C.    PFILE and password file in MOUNT state
D.    data blocks in data files that have changed since the previous backup
E.    data files while the database is in NOMOUNT state

Answer: AB
Explanation:
When you run a database in ARCHIVELOG mode, you enable the archiving of the redo log.
If you keep an archived log, you can use a backup taken while the database is open and in normal system use.
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/archredo002.htm

QUESTION 199
You regularly take backups of your database using RMAN with a recovery catalog. Your database is currently open and the temp01.dbf temp file belonging to the TEMP tablespace is corrupted.

Identify two methods to recover the temp file with the least disruption to database availability.

A.    Drop the TEMP tablespace, and then re-create it with new temp files.
B.    Restart the database instance to create the temp file automatically.
C.    Take the TEMP tablespace offline, drop the missing temp file, and then create a new temp file.
D.    Add a new temp file to the TEMP tablespace with a new name, and then drop the temp file that is corrupted.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
Temp files are a special class of data files that are associated only with temporary tablespaces.
B: After restore and recovery of a whole database, when the database is open, missing temporary tablespaces that were recorded in the control file are re-created with their previous creation size, AUTOEXTEND, and MAXSIZE attributes. Only temporary tablespaces that are missing are re-created. If a temp file exists at the location recorded in the RMAN repository but has an invalid header, then RMAN does not re-create the temp file.
If the temp files were created as Oracle-managed files, then they are re-created in the current DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST location. Otherwise, they are re-created at their previous locations.
C: If a data file becomes missing or corrupted. You must take it offline before you can open the database.
References:
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/ADMIN/dfiles.htm
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/BRADV/rcmcomre.htm

QUESTION 200
You are administering a multitenant container database (CDB) that has no startup triggers and contains three pluggable databases (PDBs).

You execute the command to start up the CDB.

SQL> STARTUP

Which statement is true?

A.    CDB$ROOT, PDB$SEED, and the PDBs are opened in read-only mode.
B.    CDB$ROOT and PDB$SEED are opened in read-only mode, but the PDBs are in closed mode.
C.    CDB$ROOT is opened in read/write mode, but PDB$SEED and the PDBs are in closed mode.
D.    CDB$ROOT is opened in read/write mode, PDB$SEED in read-only mode, and the PDBs in MOUNT state.
E.    CDB$ROOT, PDB$SEED, and the PDBs are opened in read/write mode.

Answer: D
Explanation:
If neither READ WRITE nor READ ONLY is specified, a PDB will be opened in READ ONLY if a CDB to which it belongs is used as a physical standby database, otherwise the PDB will be opened READ WRITE.
Prerequisites for a PDB STARTUP
When the current container is a pluggable database (PDB), the STARTUP command can only be used if:
* The PDB is in MOUNTED mode, excluding the use of the FORCE option.
* The PDB must be in READ ONLY or READ WRITE mode to be in mounted mode.
Etc.
References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/SQPUG/ch_twelve045.htm

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QUESTION 181
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QUESTION 315
What is pre-requisite to alter a role?

A.    You should be granted the DBA role.
B.    You should set the OS_ROLES parameter to true.
C.    You should be granted the role with the GRANT OPTION.
D.    You should have the ALTER ANY ROLE system privilege.

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QUESTION 273
SMD is a smallfile locally managed tablespace with manual segment space management.
The SH user receives the following error while inserting data into the sales table:
 
Which three actions can be taken to enable the user to insert data? (Choose three.)

A.    altering the data file associated with the SMD tablespace to grow automatically
B.    adding a data file to the SMD tablespace, provided the tablespace has not reached its maximum number of file
C.    changing segment space management for the SMD tablespace to automatic
D.    resizing the data file associated with the SMD tablespace to make it larger, provided all data files have not yet reached their maximum size
E.    increasing the space quota on the SMD tablespace for the SH user, provided the files have not yet reached their maximum size

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QUESTION 121
Given:

public class TestLoop {
public static void main(String[] args) {
int array[] = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4};
int key = 3;
for (int pos = 0; pos < array.length; ++pos) {
if (array[pos] == key) {
break;
}
}
System.out.print(“Found ” + key + “at ” + pos);
}
}

What is the result?

A.    Found 3 at 2
B.    Found 3 at 3
C.    Compilation fails
D.    An exception is thrown at runtime

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