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QUESTION 31
After several passes with a malware removal program, the program keeps detecting the same malware infection after a reboot. Which of the following should be done to attempt to remove the offending malware?

A.    Run the malware removal program while disconnected from the Internet
B.    Run the malware removal program in Windows Safe Mode
C.    Reinstall the malware removal program from a trusted source
D.    Set the malware removal program to run each time the computer is rebooted

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.pcworld.com/article/243818/how_to_remove_malware_from_your_windows_pc.html

QUESTION 32
A user, Joe, calls and states every few hours he is unable to connect to the Internet for several minutes but is able to access internal sites during this time. Which of the following tools would be used to find the issue with the network connection?

A.    TRACERT
B.    NETSTAT
C.    IPCONFIG
D.    NSLOOKUP

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://support.microsoft.com/kb/162326

QUESTION 33
A technician is trying to prevent a local application from reaching the web due to security concerns. Which of the following solutions could BEST prevent the application from reaching the web? (Select TWO).

A.    Configure the workstation for a static IP
B.    Disable all wireless network connections
C.    Remove shortcuts to the application
D.    Block the application in Windows Firewall
E.    Change network location to Work
F.    Reroute the web address in HOSTS file

Answer: DF
Explanation:
Use Windows firewall to restrict an application from reaching the web. Alternatively you can also reroute the web address in the HOST file.

QUESTION 34
For the last year, a company has gathered statistics on the most common security incidents. The highest percentage deals with opening email attachments that contain malware. Which of the following would mitigate this issue without reducing productivity?

A.    Annual cyber security education
B.    Update antivirus signatures more often
C.    Block all email attachments
D.    Install an IPS on each workstation

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://www.aps.anl.gov/Safety_and_Training/Training/Courses/esh223/start.html

QUESTION 35
A company wants to ensure that the latest cyber security threats are known to the employees across the enterprise to minimize occurrences. Which of the following should be implemented?

A.    Message of the Day
B.    Email lists
C.    Company forums
D.    Regular user education

Answer: D
Explanation:
Educating user is the best way to combat security threats. After all security threats occur when a human carries it across unknowingly.

QUESTION 36
Which of the following operating systems can be upgraded directly to Windows 7 Professional by a default installation? (Select TWO).

A.    Windows 7 Home Premium
B.    Windows Vista Business
C.    Windows XP Home
D.    Windows XP Professional 64-bit
E.    Windows XP Media Center

Answer: AB
Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd772579(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 37
A technician has finished replacing the network card in a laptop and has verified full system functionality. Which of the following troubleshooting steps should the technician take NEXT?

A.    Document findings, actions, and outcomes
B.    Escalate problem to a senior technician
C.    Re-establish new theory of probable cause
D.    Perform a full system backup

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://ptgmedia.pearsoncmg.com/images/9781587132636/samplechapter/9781587132636_ch04.pdf

QUESTION 38
A technician is implementing a SOHO wireless network for Company A that shares a floor with Company B. Which of the following would BEST secure the wireless network so that only Company A employees are allowed access?

A.    Turning down the radio power level
B.    Enabling MAC filtering
C.    Setting a high encryption level
D.    Disabling the SSID broadcast

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://compnetworking.about.com/cs/wirelessproducts/qt/macaddress.htm

QUESTION 39
A technician enabled remote management on the small office WAP to manage this device from another location. Users are reporting that the WAP has changed its SSID without anyone’s knowledge. Which of the following would prevent this from occurring?

A.    Change to user MAC filtering
B.    Change default usernames and passwords
C.    Disable the SSID from broadcasting
D.    Enable static IP addresses

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://compnetworking.about.com/od/routers/ss/routerpassword.htm

QUESTION 40
A technician has configured the ability to connect to a small office server using remote desktop
from a workstation within the office. The technician has reviewed logs that show constant brute force attacks to that server from outside the network. Which of the following would prevent this from occurring?

A.    Configure the server to use a static IP
B.    Logically move the server to the DMZ
C.    Reallocate the server to a different networking closet
D.    Disable the remote desktop port

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc759006(v=ws.10).aspx

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QUESTION 31
A customer has purchased a 1TB internal hard drive. The customer would like to have it installed as a data drive in their existing system. The technician discovers there is no spare power supply connector for the new hard drive. Which of the following would enable the technician to EASILY accomplish the task? (Select TWO).

A.    Replace the existing hard drive.
B.    Replace the power supply.
C.    Remove the floppy disk.
D.    Remove the CD-ROM.
E.    Split an existing power connection.

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QUESTION 31
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A.    Rainbow table attacks greatly reduce compute cycles at attack time.
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QUESTION 21
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QUESTION 21
A technician wants to separate networks on a switch. Which of the following should be configured to allow this?

A.    VLAN
B.    Trunking
C.    Spanning tree
D.    Traffic filtering

Answer: A
Explanation:
A VLAN is a group of end stations in a switched network that is logically segmented by function, project team, or application, without regard to the physical locations of the users. VLANs have the same attributes as physical LANs, but you can group end stations even if they are not physically located on the same LAN segment.

QUESTION 22
A user does not have network connectivity. While testing the cable the technician receives the below reading on the cable tester:

1———–1
2———–2
3———–3
4———–4
5———–5
6———–6
7———–7
8———–8

Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?

A.    Cable is a crossover, continue troubleshooting
B.    Pin 3 is not used for data, continue troubleshooting
C.    Pin 3 is not used for data, replace the NIC
D.    Redo the cable’s connectors

Answer: D

QUESTION 23
A technician needs multiple networks, high speeds, and redundancy on a system. Which of the following configurations should be considered for these requirements? (Select TWO).

A.    Routing table
B.    Next hop
C.    Port mirroring
D.    Port monitoring
E.    VLANs

Answer: CE
Explanation:
Port mirroring is used on a network switch to send a copy of network packets seen on one switch port (or an entire VLAN) to a network monitoring connection on another switch port. This is commonly used for network appliances that require monitoring of network traffic, such as an intrusion detection system, passive probe or real user monitoring (RUM) technology that is used to support application performance management (APM).
In computer networking, a single layer-2 network may be partitioned to create multiple distinct
broadcast domains, which are mutually isolated so that packets can only pass between them via one or more routers; such a domain is referred to as a Virtual Local Area Network, Virtual LAN or VLAN.

QUESTION 24
A technician decides to upgrade a router before leaving for vacation. While away, users begin to report slow performance. Which of the following practices allows other technicians to quickly return the network to normal speeds?

A.    Change management
B.    Baselines
C.    Asset management
D.    Cable management

Answer: A
Explanation:
As soon as technician found a problem he generates a change management request to make changes to fast up the speed of router.

QUESTION 25
Which of the following would a network administrator recommend to satisfy fault tolerance needs within the datacenter?

A.    Multimode fiber
B.    Setting up a new hot site
C.    Central KVM system
D.    Central UPS system

Answer: D
Explanation:
For unintruppted power supply we need ups as from this no power issue will come and our systems will remain safe.

QUESTION 26
During a disaster recovery test, several billing representatives need to be temporarily setup to take payments from customers. It has been determined that this will need to occur over a wireless network, with security being enforced where possible. Which of the following configurations should be used in this scenario?

A.    WPA2, SSID enabled, and 802.11n.
B.    WEP, SSID enabled, and 802.11b.
C.    WEP, SSID disabled, and 802.11g.
D.    WPA2, SSID disabled, and 802.11a.

Answer: D
Explanation:
WPA2 is a security technology commonly used on Wi-Fi wireless networks. WPA2 (Wireless Protected Access 2) replaced the original WPA technology on all certified Wi-Fi hardware since 2006 and is based on the IEEE 802.11i technology standard for data encryption.

QUESTION 27
Which of the following wiring distribution types, often found in company closets, is used to connect wiring from individual offices to the main LAN cabling?

A.    MDF
B.    66 block
C.    IDF
D.    Patch panel

Answer: D
Explanation:
A patch panel, patch bay, patch field or jack field is a number of circuits, usually of the same or similar type, which appear on jacks for monitoring, interconnecting, and testing circuits in a convenient, flexible manner.

QUESTION 28
Which of the following network access security methods ensures communication occurs over a secured, encrypted channel, even if the data uses the Internet?

A.    MAC filtering
B.    RAS
C.    SSL VPN
D.    L2TP

Answer: C
Explanation:
SSL VPN consists of one or more VPN devices to which the user connects by using his Web browser. The traffic between the Web browser and the SSL VPN device is encrypted with the SSL protocol or its successor, the Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol.

QUESTION 29
Which of the following is the difference between 802.11b and 802.11g?

A.    Distance
B.    Frequency
C.    Speed
D.    Transmission power

Answer: C
Explanation:
802.11b has a maximum speed of 11Mbps whereas 802.11g has a speed of 54Mbps.

QUESTION 30
Users are reporting that some Internet websites are not accessible anymore. Which of the following will allow the network administrator to quickly isolate the remote router that is causing the network communication issue, so that the problem can be reported to the appropriate responsible party?

A.    Ping
B.    Protocol analyzer
C.    Tracert
D.    Dig

Answer: C
Explanation:
Tracet command will tell the administrator which route is not present or which is present so he will come to know whether he has appropriate route or not.

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Which of the following methods would BEST assist the developers in determining if any unknown vulnerabilities are present?

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QUESTION 409
Engineers are preparing to move guests to new compute and storage infrastructure. Basic network and SAN connectivity have been established. Which of the following options are valid NEXT steps to prepare for guest migration to the new infrastructure? (Select two.)

A.    Tag the live migration VLAN on the trunk to the new servers
B.    Correctly size and provision NFS LUNs on the new storage
C.    Zone HBAs
D.    Prep mirror VMs on new hosts for data migration
E.    Tag the SAN trunks with the correct guest network VLANs

Answer: AD

QUESTION 410
An administrator is implementing a private cloud that will be used as a test environment. To limit the number of guests per subnet to a maximum of 14, the administrator implemented a /20 network. Which of the following should the administrator use to assign the networks?

A.    DHCP
B.    Subnet
C.    VLAN
D.    Gateway

Answer: A

QUESTION 411
A Chief Information Officer (CIO) has summoned an administrator due to the datacenter power bill being significantly higher than normal. The administrator explains that a new array was installed for a 20TB CRM application. Which of the following solutions would provide a new performance benefit and also reduce power consumption?

A.    SSD
B.    SAS
C.    SATA
D.    FC

Answer: A

QUESTION 412
Cloud bursting can alleviate which of the following attacks?

A.    Buffer Overflow
B.    Brute Force
C.    XSS
D.    DDOS

Answer: D

QUESTION 413
An administrator is testing a new web server from outside of the corporate firewall. The administrator performs a test from a single PC and the web server responds accordingly. The administrator then provisions several virtual machines on a network behind NAT and uses them to perform the same operation on the web server at the same time, but thereafter soon discovers that none of the machines can reach the web server. Which of the following could be responsible?

A.    IPS
B.    Blacklisting
C.    IDS
D.    Whitelisting
E.    Firewall

Answer: E

QUESTION 414
Which of the following would a company implement to provide authentication to multiple websites that are delivered through PaaS?

A.    Federation services
B.    MAC
C.    Multi-factor authentication
D.    RBAC

Answer: D

QUESTION 415
An administrator is responsible for managing a host that is part of a private cloud. The host has one physical quad core CPU. The administrator is tasked with creating a new guest that requires a single CPU. Which of the following actions should the administrator do?

A.    Assign 1 virtual CPU to the Guest
B.    Assign 1 virtual CPU to the Host
C.    Assign 1 physical CPU to the Guest
D.    Assign 1 physical CPU to the Host

Answer: A

QUESTION 416
Which of the following storage technologies is IP-based?

A.    SCSI
B.    DAS
C.    FCP
D.    NAS

Answer: D

QUESTION 417
An administrator has created a new virtual server according to specifications and verified that TCP/IP settings are correct. When the VM is powered on, however, an error message indicates that a network card MAC address conflict exists. Which of the following would resolve this issue?

A.    Remove the virtual NIC and configure another one.
B.    Add an additional NIC with a loopback interface.
C.    Ping the IP address to determine the location of the conflict.
D.    Change the MAC to ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff and obtain a new address.

Answer: A

QUESTION 418
An administrator is no longer receiving alerting messages from the web server platform that recently failed over to a new secondary datacenter due to a power failure. Which of the following is the cause of the problem?

A.    Port 21 in only allowed inbound at the primary datacenter
B.    Port 22 to the log server is blocked outbound
C.    Port 162 in DMZ is blocked inbound
D.    Port 162 in DMZ is blocked outbound

Answer: C

QUESTION 419
An organization wants to create a server VM that is segregated from the rest of the servers. Which of the following should the server administrator configure?

A.    Virtual NIC
B.    Trunk port
C.    Virtual memory
D.    VPN connection

Answer: A

QUESTION 420
Which of the following ensures that there is enough space for vendors to install their programs and run the software they will be managing for various SaaS products?

A.    Network isolation
B.    Laws and regulations
C.    Multi-tenancy
D.    Data segregation

Answer: C

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QUESTION 21
Which of the following features allows for easier navigation of long lists on a tablet device?

A.    Pinch-zoom
B.    Multitouch
C.    Scrollbars
D.    Touch flow

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://gigaom.com/2010/03/08/touchscreen-tablets/

QUESTION 22
Which of the following file system types is used primarily for optical media?

A.    FAT32
B.    NTFS
C.    HPFS
D.    CDFS

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://www.computerhope.com/jargon/c/cdfs.htm

QUESTION 23
When moving files from a Microsoft gaming console, which of the following command line utilities is recommended to transfer files?

A.    IMAP
B.    XCOPY
C.    DISKPART
D.    FDISK

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.microsoft.com/resources/documentation/windows/xp/all/proddocs/en-us/xcopy.mspx?mfr=true

QUESTION 24
Which of the following should a technician implement to prevent external contractors from physically plugging devices into the company’s network jacks unless such jacks are designated for guest use?

A.    Disable DHCP and assign a static IP address to each network device physically connected to the network.
B.    Enable MAC address filtering across all network jacks and record the MAC address of guest devices.
C.    Disable all switch ports when they are not utilized and enable them on an as needed basis.
D.    Place guest network jacks in public areas and all other jacks in secure areas as needed.

Answer: C
Explanation:
The best way is to disable all switch ports when they are not utilized. Switch them on when you need them. This way, you can prevent external contractors from physically plugging devices in to company’s network jacks.

QUESTION 25
After installing a new printer the organization determines that there are problems printing images and very large files. Which of the following will MOST likely resolve the issue?

A.    Update the drivers using WHQL drivers
B.    Install additional memory to each computer
C.    Install additional memory to the printer
D.    Apply the latest OS service pack

Answer: C
Explanation:
http://www.ehow.com/how_6875286_install-printer-memory.html

QUESTION 26
Which of the following command line tools will terminate a non-system process without restarting the computer?

A.    Shutdown
B.    Kill
C.    Erase
D.    Break

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.tech-recipes.com/rx/446/xp_kill_windows_process_command_line_taskkill/

QUESTION 27
After accidentally removing a hard drive from a server with three drives in a RAID 5 configuration, a technician notices the server locks up and shuts down. Which of the following can the technician do to quickly fix the problem?

A.    Replace the RAID controller and boot.
B.    Reinsert the drive and boot.
C.    Plug the drive back in, the system will resume automatically.
D.    Remove all drives and rebuild the array.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Just reinsert the drive and boot the computer. The computer will start since it is a RAID 5 configuration.

QUESTION 28
A customer calls an IT consultant to explain an issue they are having with their Windows 7 Professional PC. Windows Update attempts to install patches upon each startup but fails on the same single update. The customer has attempted to re-run Windows Update from Control Panel but the issue remains. Which of the following courses of action would BEST resolve the problem?

A.    Running a full DEFRAG on the system
B.    Clearing the AppData temp folder entirely
C.    Clearing the Windows Update download cache entirely
D.    Uninstalling the Windows Update feature in Windows 7 and reinstalling it directly from the Microsoft website

Answer: C
Explanation:
http://larsjoergensen.net/windows/windows-7/how-to-clear-the-windows-update-download-cache-in-windows-7

QUESTION 29
A user reports that their wireless connectivity is being spotty. The issue seems to interrupt their wireless signal connection when the laptop screen is tilted forward or backward during operation. When this happens, the entire wireless signal drops out until the screen is left in position for a
good minute or so. Which of the following MOST likely explains what is happening?

A.    The hinges on the laptop screen are not strong enough to support the wireless signal cables.
B.    The wireless card is losing contact to its socket when the screen is opening/closing.
C.    The laptop is designed to work optimally with wireless when the screen is at a perfect 90 degree angle.
D.    The wireless signal cables are being crimped when the screen is opening/closing.

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://compnetworking.about.com/od/wirelessfaqs/f/wifilaptoprange.htm

QUESTION 30
A user states that they cannot connect to the network or the Internet. The technician determines the issue is that the computer has a static IP address and needs to use DHCP to work correctly. The technician sets the NIC to automatically assign an IP address. Which of the following should the technician perform NEXT?

A.    Identify the type of network card and what Operating System the computer is running
B.    Confirm the computer is back on the network and has Internet connectivity
C.    They need to annotate what the static IP address was and inform the employee’s manager
D.    They need to determine why the NIC was assigned a static IP address

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd183692(v=ws.10).aspx

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QUESTION 211
A penetration tester finds that a company’s login credentials for the email client were client being sent in clear text. Which of the following should be done to provide encrypted logins to the email server?

A.    Enable IPSec and configure SMTP.
B.    Enable SSH and LDAP credentials.
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QUESTION 183
A system administrator wants to provide balance between the security of a wireless network and usability. The administrator is concerned with wireless encryption compatibility of older devices used by some employees. Which of the following would provide strong security and backward compatibility when accessing the wireless network?

A.    Open wireless network and SSL VPN
B.    WPA using a preshared key
C.    WPA2 using a RADIUS back-end for 802.1x authentication
D.    WEP with a 40-bit key

Answer: C

QUESTION 184
An information security specialist is reviewing the following output from a Linux server.
1841
Based on the above information, which of the following types of malware was installed on the server? / local/

A.    Logic bomb
B.    Trojan
C.    Backdoor
D.    Ransomware
E.    Rootkit

Answer: C

QUESTION 185
In terms of encrypting data, which of the following is BEST described as a way to safeguard password data by adding random data to it in storage?

A.    Using salt
B.    Using hash algorithms
C.    Implementing elliptical curve
D.    Implementing PKI

Answer: A

QUESTION 186
A system administrator wants to provide for and enforce wireless access accountability during events where external speakers are invited to make presentations to a mixed audience of employees and non-employees. Which of the following should the administrator implement?

A.    Shared accounts
B.    Preshared passwords
C.    Least privilege
D.    Sponsored guest

Answer: D

QUESTION 187
Which of the following would MOST likely appear in an uncredentialed vulnerability scan?

A.    Self-signed certificates
B.    Missing patches
C.    Auditing parameters
D.    Inactive local accounts

Answer: D

QUESTION 188
A security analyst observes the following events in the logs of an employee workstation:
1881
Given the information provided, which of the following MOST likely occurred on the workstation?

A.    Application whitelisting controls blocked an exploit payload from executing.
B.    Antivirus software found and quarantined three malware files.
C.    Automatic updates were initiated but failed because they had not been approved.
D.    The SIEM log agent was not turned properly and reported a false positive.

Answer: A

QUESTION 189
When identifying a company’s most valuable assets as part of a BIA, which of the following should be the FIRST priority?

A.    Life
B.    Intellectual property
C.    Sensitive data
D.    Public reputation

Answer: A

QUESTION 190
An organization needs to implement a large PKI. Network engineers are concerned that repeated transmission of the OCSP will impact network performance. Which of the following should the security analyst recommend is lieu of an OCSP?

A.    CSR
B.    CRL
C.    CA
D.    OID

Answer: B

QUESTION 191
When considering a third-party cloud service provider, which of the following criteria would be the BEST to include in the security assessment process? (Select two.)

A.    Use of performance analytics
B.    Adherence to regulatory compliance
C.    Data retention policies
D.    Size of the corporation
E.    Breadth of applications support

Answer: BC

QUESTION 192
Which of the following occurs when the security of a web application relies on JavaScript for input validation?

A.    The integrity of the data is at risk.
B.    The security of the application relies on antivirus.
C.    A host-based firewall is required.
D.    The application is vulnerable to race conditions.

Answer: A

QUESTION 193
An analyst is reviewing a simple program for potential security vulnerabilities before being deployed to a Windows server. Given the following code:
1931
Which of the following vulnerabilities is present?

A.    Bad memory pointer
B.    Buffer overflow
C.    Integer overflow
D.    Backdoor

Answer: B

QUESTION 194
An organization’s file server has been virtualized to reduce costs. Which of the following types of backups would be MOST appropriate for the particular file server?

A.    Snapshot
B.    Full
C.    Incremental
D.    Differential

Answer: C

QUESTION 195
A wireless network uses a RADIUS server that is connected to an authenticator, which in turn connects to a supplicant. Which of the following represents the authentication architecture in use?

A.    Open systems authentication
B.    Captive portal
C.    RADIUS federation
D.    802.1x

Answer: D

QUESTION 196
An employer requires that employees use a key-generating app on their smartphones to log into corporate applications. In terms of authentication of an individual, this type of access policy is BEST defined as:

A.    Something you have.
B.    Something you know.
C.    Something you do.
D.    Something you are.

Answer: A

QUESTION 197
Adhering to a layered security approach, a controlled access facility employs security guards who verify the authorization of all personnel entering the facility. Which of the following terms BEST describes the security control being employed?

A.    Administrative
B.    Corrective
C.    Deterrent
D.    Compensating

Answer: A

QUESTION 198
A security analyst is hardening a web server, which should allow a secure certificate-based session using the organization’s PKI infrastructure. The web server should also utilize the latest security techniques and standards. Given this set of requirements, which of the following techniques should the analyst implement to BEST meet these requirements? (Select two.)

A.    Install an X- 509-compliant certificate.
B.    Implement a CRL using an authorized CA.
C.    Enable and configure TLS on the server.
D.    Install a certificate signed by a public CA.
E.    Configure the web server to use a host header.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 199
A manager wants to distribute a report to several other managers within the company. Some of them reside in remote locations that are not connected to the domain but have a local server. Because there is sensitive data within the report and the size of the report is beyond the limit of the email attachment size, emailing the report is not an option. Which of the following protocols should be implemented to distribute the report securely? (Select three.)

A.    S/MIME
B.    SSH
C.    SNMPv3
D.    FTPS
E.    SRTP
F.    HTTPS
G.    LDAPS

Answer: BDF

QUESTION 200
An auditor is reviewing the following output from a password-cracking tool:

User:1: Password1
User2: Recovery!
User3: Alaskan10
User4: 4Private
User5: PerForMance2

Which of the following methods did the author MOST likely use?

A.    Hybrid
B.    Dictionary
C.    Brute force
D.    Rainbow table

Answer: A

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QUESTION 31
Which of the following characteristics differentiate a rainbow table attack from a brute force attack? (Select TWO).

A.    Rainbow table attacks greatly reduce compute cycles at attack time.
B.    Rainbow tables must include precompiled hashes.
C.    Rainbow table attacks do not require access to hashed passwords.
D.    Rainbow table attacks must be performed on the network.
E.    Rainbow table attacks bypass maximum failed login restrictions.

Answer: BE

QUESTION 32
Which of the following BEST describes a routine in which semicolons, dashes, quotes, and commas are removed from a string?

A.    Error handling to protect against program exploitation
B.    Exception handling to protect against XSRF attacks
C.    Input validation to protect against SQL injection
D.    Padding to protect against string buffer overflows

Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Which of the following is an important step to take BEFORE moving any installation packages from a test environment to production?

A.    Roll back changes in the test environment
B.    Verify the hashes of files
C.    Archive and compress the files
D.     Update the secure baseline

Answer: A

QUESTION 34
Which of the following cryptographic attacks would salting of passwords render ineffective?

A.    Brute force
B.    Dictionary
C.    Rainbow tables
D.     Birthday

Answer: B

QUESTION 35
A network administrator wants to implement a method of securing internal routing.
Which of the following should the administrator implement?

A.    DMZ
B.    NAT
C.    VPN
D.    PAT

Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Which of the following types of keys is found in a key escrow?

A.    Public
B.    Private
C.    Shared
D.    Session

Answer: D

QUESTION 37
A senior incident response manager receives a call about some external IPs communicating with internal computers during off hours. Which of the following types of malware is MOST likely causing this issue?

A.    Botnet
B.    Ransomware
C.    Polymorphic malware
D.    Armored virus

Answer: A

QUESTION 38
A company is currently using the following configuration:

* IAS server with certificate-based EAP-PEAP and MSCHAP
* Unencrypted authentication via PAP

A security administrator needs to configure a new wireless setup with the following configurations:

* PAP authentication method
* PEAP and EAP provide two-factor authentication

Which of the following forms of authentication are being used? (Select TWO).

A.    PAP
B.    PEAP
C.    MSCHAP
D.    PEAP-MSCHAP
E.    EAP
F.    EAP-PEAP

Answer: AF

QUESTION 39
A security administrator is trying to encrypt communication. For which of the following reasons should administrator take advantage of the Subject Alternative Name (SAM) attribute of a certificate?

A.    It can protect multiple domains
B.    It provides extended site validation
C.    It does not require a trusted certificate authority
D.    It protects unlimited subdomains

Answer: B

QUESTION 40
After a merger between two companies a security analyst has been asked to ensure that the organization’s systems are secured against infiltration by any former employees that were terminated during the transition.
Which of the following actions are MOST appropriate to harden applications against infiltration by former employees? (Select TWO)

A.    Monitor VPN client access
B.    Reduce failed login out settings
C.    Develop and implement updated access control policies
D.    Review and address invalid login attempts
E.    Increase password complexity requirements
F.    Assess and eliminate inactive accounts

Answer: CF

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QUESTION 11
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QUESTION 11
If a project sponsor wants to know the current status and progress of a project, which of the following is the BEST approach to find this information?

A.    The project sponsor should obtain the current status from team members, put it into a presentation, and present it to the project manager for review.
B.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, apply it to the baseline of the schedule, and run a report
C.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, update the project charter, project management plan, dashboard, and SOW; and then create a status report to provide to the project manager.
D.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, update the risk register, and provide the information to the project champion for review

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which documents does a vendor rely on to commit funding and resources to a project?

A.    SOW
B.    PO
C.    SU
D.    MOU

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A project coordinator logs potential events that can affect project constraints, and then records the results of brainstorm,TM of potential strategies.
Which of the following documents should the project coordinator use?

A.    Risk register
B.    Issue log
C.    Communication plan
D.    Status report

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following describes how a project is related to a program?

A.    A program is a combination of multiple projects.
B.    A program contains an element of the project.
C.    A program is a part of a project.
D.    A program uses half of the project’s budget.

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which of the following is a key aspect of the Agile project management methodology?

A.    Test-driven
B.    Daily standup meetings
C.    Short project durations
D.    Defined list of requirements

Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which of the following are examples of organizational change? (Choose two.).

A.    Relocation
B.    Scope
C.    Business process
D.    Schedule
E.    Risk event

Answer: AC

QUESTION 17
A vendor has accepted a proposed project from a customer.
Which of the following is MOST likely to be the first document created by the project manager?

A.    Project charter
B.    Project management plan
C.    Project statement of work
D.    Project schedule

Answer: B

QUESTION 18
The PMO is responsible for: (Choose two.),

A.    managing the project plan, scope, risk, and budget.
B.    contributing expertise, deliverables, and estimates of costs.
C.    setting standards and practices for the organization and providing governance.
D.    outlining consequences of non-performance and coordinating between disparate projects
E.    approving funding, developing the project schedule, and gathering high-level requirements

Answer: CD

QUESTION 19
Which of the following describes risk mitigation?

A.    The transfer of the risk to another entity or project inside or outside the organization, along with associated costs
B.    The understanding of the risk with a detailed explanation of how the project intends to address the potential for occurrence
C.    The quantification of the risk in terms of how much the risk could potentially cost the project or parent organization
D.    The weighting or prioritization of the risk against all other identified risks within this project or others associated with it

Answer: B

QUESTION 20
A project manager has noticed poor attendance at status meetings. Which of the following strategies should the project manager use to improve attendance? (Choose two.)

A.    Provide an agenda before the status meeting
B.    Adhere to an agenda and scheduled time
C.    Add non-project-related items to the agenda
D.    Add and discuss new agenda items throughout the meeting.
E.    Discard the action items at the conclusion of the meeting.

Answer: AB

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QUESTION 11
Which of the following properties of DHCP would a technician use to ensure an IP address is not leased out from the active scope?

A.    Reservations
B.    Lease times
C.    Removing IPs from the active leases
D.    Configuring the DNS options

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QUESTION 11
A security analyst is adding input to the incident response communication plan.
A company officer has suggested that if a data breach occurs, only affected parties should be notified to keep an incident from becoming a media headline.
Which of the following should the analyst recommend to the company officer?

A.    The first responder should contact law enforcement upon confirmation of a security incident in order for a forensics team to preserve chain of custody.
B.    Guidance from laws and regulations should be considered when deciding who must be notified in order to avoid fines and judgements from non-compliance.
C.    An externally hosted website should be prepared in advance to ensure that when an incident occurs victims have timely access to notifications from a non-compromised recourse.
D.    The HR department should have information security personnel who are involved in the investigation of the incident sign non-disclosure agreements so the company cannot be held liable for customer data that might be viewed during an investigation.

Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A company has recently launched a new billing invoice website for a few key vendors.
The cybersecurity analyst is receiving calls that the website is performing slowly and the pages sometimes time out.
The analyst notices the website is receiving millions of requests, causing the service to become unavailable.
Which of the following can be implemented to maintain the availability of the website?

A.    VPN
B.    Honeypot
C.    Whitelisting
D.    DMZ
E.    MAC filtering

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A cybersecurity analyst has received the laptop of a user who recently left the company.
The analyst types `history’ into the prompt, and sees this line of code in the latest bash history:

131

This concerns the analyst because this subnet should not be known to users within the company.
Which of the following describes what this code has done on the network?

A.    Performed a ping sweep of the Class C network.
B.    Performed a half open SYB scan on the network.
C.    Sent 255 ping packets to each host on the network.
D.    Sequentially sent an ICMP echo reply to the Class C network.

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A security audit revealed that port 389 has been used instead of 636 when connecting to LDAP for the authentication of users.
The remediation recommended by the audit was to switch the port to 636 wherever technically possible.
Which of the following is the BEST response?

A.    Correct the audit. This finding is a well-known false positive; the services that typically run on 389 and 636 are identical.
B.    Change all devices and servers that support it to 636, as encrypted services run by default on 636.
C.    Change all devices and servers that support it to 636, as 389 is a reserved port that requires root access and can expose the server to privilege escalation attacks.
D.    Correct the audit. This finding is accurate, but the correct remediation is to update encryption keys on each of the servers to match port 636.

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
A security analyst is reviewing IDS logs and notices the following entry:
Which of the following attacks is occurring?

A.    Cross-site scripting
B.    Header manipulation
C.    SQL injection
D.    XML injection

Answer: C

QUESTION 16
A company that is hiring a penetration tester wants to exclude social engineering from the list of authorized activities.
Which of the following documents should include these details?

A.    Acceptable use policy
B.    Service level agreement
C.    Rules of engagement
D.    Memorandum of understanding
E.    Master service agreement

Answer: B

QUESTION 17
A reverse engineer was analyzing malware found on a retailer’s network and found code extracting track data in memory.
Which of the following threats did the engineer MOST likely uncover?

A.    POS malware
B.    Rootkit
C.    Key logger
D.    Ransomware

Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Due to new regulations, a company has decided to institute an organizational vulnerability management program and assign the function to the security team.
Which of the following frameworks would BEST support the program? (Select two.)

A.    COBIT
B.    NIST
C.    ISO 27000 series
D.    ITIL
E.    OWASP

Answer: DE

QUESTION 19
A system administrator recently deployed and verified the installation of a critical patch issued by the company’s primary OS vendor. This patch was supposed to remedy a vulnerability that would allow an adversary to remotely execute code from over the network. However, the administrator just ran a vulnerability assessment of networked systems, and each of them still reported having the same vulnerability. Which of the following if the MOST likely explanation for this?

A.    The administrator entered the wrong IP range for the assessment.
B.    The administrator did not wait long enough after applying the patch to run the assessment.
C.    The patch did not remediate the vulnerability.
D.    The vulnerability assessment returned false positives.

Answer: C

QUESTION 20
An incident response report indicates a virus was introduced through a remote host that was connected to corporate resources.
A cybersecurity analyst has been asked for a recommendation to solve this issue.
Which of the following should be applied?

A.    MAC
B.    TAP
C.    NAC
D.    ACL

Answer: C

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QUESTION 11
Driven mainly by cost, many companies outsource computing jobs which require a large amount of processor cycles over a short duration to cloud providers.
This allows the company to avoid a large investment in computing resources which will only be used for a short time.
Assuming the provisioned resources are dedicated to a single company, which of the following is the MAIN vulnerability associated with on-demand provisioning?

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B.    Remnants of network data from prior customers on the physical servers during a compute
job
C.    Exposure of proprietary data when in-transit to the cloud provider through IPSec tunnels
D.    Failure of the de-provisioning mechanism resulting in excessive charges for the resources

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