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QUESTION 21
Pilot testing of the new switching infrastructure finds that when the root port is lost, STP immediately replaces the root port with an alternative root port. Which spanning-tree technology is used to accomplish backup root port selection?

A.    PVST+
B.    PortFast
C.    BackboneFast
D.    UplinkFast
E.    Loop Guard
F.    UDLD

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QUESTION 21
Which two statements regarding you configuring a traversal server and traversal client relationship are true? (Choose two.)

A.    VCS supports only the H.460.18/19 protocol for H.323 traversal calls.
B.    VCS supports either the Assent or the H.460.18/19 protocol for H.323 traversal calls.
C.    VCS supports either the Assent or the H.460.18/19 protocol for SIP traversal calls.
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QUESTION 521
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QUESTION 509
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is working on the network topology and executes the command no ip split-horizon on interface S0/0 of the hum router.
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QUESTION 161
Which configuration set enables outbound label filtering so that only peer 192.168.10.1 receives label advertisements in an MPLS environment?

A.     1611
B.     1612
C.     1613
D.     1614

Answer: C

QUESTION 162
Which high-availability feature does not require communication with other peers?

A.    rLFA
B.    MPLS TE FRR
C.    Nonstop Routing
D.    NSF

Answer: A

QUESTION 163
Which driver uses an IntServ QoS model in an MPLS TE enabled service provider network?

A.    DSCP, which requires signaling across the provider network
B.    RSVP, which enables bandwidth guarantees across a provider network
C.    RSVP, which enables per-hop behavior across a provider network
D.    DSCP, which enables bandwidth guarantees across a provider network

Answer: B

QUESTION 164
Refer to the exhibit. MPLS TE Tunnel 138 has a headend R1 and a tailend R4, and uses path R1-R2-R4 as the primary LSP. The path R1-R2-R3-R4 should be implemented as a backup LSP in case the R2-R4 link fails. To which interface should the appropriate configuration be applied to accomplish this?

1641

A.     1642
B.     1643
C.     1644
D.     1645

Answer: C

QUESTION 165
What is the function of MPLS FRR?

A.    automatically repairs LDP adjacency issues for MPLS TE tunnel endpoints
B.    automatically updates BGP prefixes during link failures
C.    automatically redirects MPLS TE traffic away from degraded links
D.    routes traffic onto a backup MPLS TE tunnel during link failures

Answer: D

QUESTION 166
An engineer must configure a policy on a Cisco IOS XE router that achieves the following:

Traffic 2 Mbps or less is transmitted
Traffic between 2 Mbps and 3 Mbps is marked with IP Precedence 4
Traffic that exceeds 3 Mbps is dropped

Which configuration achieves this policy?

A.     1661
B.     1662
C.     1663
D.     1664

Answer: C

QUESTION 167
Refer to the exhibit. You are about to implement security features, including this configuration, within the MPLS network of a large MPLS service provider.
How does the router distribute the labels to its neighbors?

1671

A.    All network 10.100.0.0/24 labels are sent to all TDP neighbors
B.    All network 10.100.0.0/16 labels are sent to all LDP neighbors
C.    All network 10.100.0.0/24 labels are sent to all LDP neighbors
D.    All network 10.100.0.0/24 labels are sent to all LDP and TDP neighbors

Answer: C

QUESTION 168
Which feature should you configure to enable routers to maintain MPLS label information despite link flaps on an interface?

A.    Targeted Adjacency
B.    IGP Synchronization
C.    MPLS LDP Session Protection
D.    NSR

Answer: C

QUESTION 169
Which option shows how a network engineer implements QPPB marking of incoming traffic on a router that is connected to a VoIP SP (AS62000, BGP community 60000:1) and to a data services service provider (AS61000, BGP community 61000:1) on Cisco IOS XE?

A.     1691
B.     1692
C.     1693
D.     1694

Answer: C

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QUESTION 151
Which two options are true regarding the Pipe and Short Pipe MPLS tunneling models? (Choose two.)

A.    In Short Pipe mode QoS is done on the PE-to-CE link based on the customer’s PHB markings
B.    In Pipe mode QoS is done on the PE-to-CE link based on the service provider’s PHB markings
C.    In Pipe mode QoS is done on the PE-to-CE link based on the customer’s PHB markings
D.    In Short Pipe mode QoS is done on the PE-to-CE link based on the service provider’s PHB markings
E.    Short Pipe mode does not need MPLS usage, but Pipe mode does

Answer: AB

QUESTION 152
Refer to the exhibit. What is the available reservable bandwidth for P6 after successful establishment of Tunnel 1?

1521

A.    490 Kbps
B.    500 Kbps
C.    490 Mbps
D.    500 Mbps

Answer: D

QUESTION 153
How is bandwidth recalculated when utilizing the automatic bandwidth adjustment feature for MPLS TE?

A.    The tunnel’s output average is periodically sampled and then the bandwidth is adjusted to the largest sample obtained during the period, or to the configured maximum
B.    The tunnel’s output is sampled and then the bandwidth is adjusted by a configured percentage until the configured maximum value is reached
C.    Ping is used to measure congestion and the bandwidth is adjusted by a configured percentage until the maximum value is reached
D.    Ping is used to measure congestion and the bandwidth is adjusted to either the minimum, average, or maximum configured bandwidth value

Answer: A

QUESTION 154
Which two advantages are reasons that service providers might deploy MPLS? (Choose two.)

A.    to avoid using IGP in the core
B.    to facilitate smooth migrations between legacy WAN technologies
C.    to reduce the throughput overhead of full IPv4/IPv6 headers when traversing the core
D.    to reduce the computational requirements that are placed on router CPUs
E.    to reduce configuration and feature requirements in the core

Answer: CD

QUESTION 155
In Cisco IOS, what must be configured to ensure that an MPLS TE tunnel becomes active?

A.    layer 3 addressing on the tunnel, to establish bidirectional communication over the tunnel
B.    the tunnel for autoroute, to ensure proper installation into the forwarding plane
C.    a path-option configuration, for either dynamic or explicit paths
D.    the tunnel with a minimum bandwidth value, to properly calculate CSPF

Answer: A

QUESTION 156
Which option shows how a class map is implemented that matches only packets originating from the network 10.0.0.0/8, which are not marked as VoIP on Cisco IOS XE?

A.    1561
B.     1562
C.     1563
D.     1564

Answer: B

QUESTION 157
An engineer is having a problem getting an operational 10 Gigabit link on a Cisco ASR 9000 series router. The service provider instructs the engineer to use an LR optic. The engineer must access the router remotely.
Which command should the engineer issue to determine that the correct optic has been installed?

A.    show controllers
B.    show module optics
C.    show ip interface
D.    show optics

Answer: A

QUESTION 158
Which message is sent through the desired LSP path by the headend router and is used to determine available resources?

A.    PATH
B.    TENT
C.    RSVP
D.    RESV

Answer: A

QUESTION 159
An engineer sets up QoS over MPLS networks. How many classes of traffic can one LSP support?

A.    as many as 8, because the EXP field is 3 bits
B.    as many as 3, because the EXP field is 3 bits
C.    as many as 64, because the DSCP field is 6 bits
D.    as many as 6, because the DSCP field is 6 bits

Answer: A

QUESTION 160
An engineer deployed a Cisco MPLS TE next-hop protection over a switched environment. While testing the link protection, an excessive IGP delay in the reconvergence time is seen.
Which action fixes this issue?

A.    Replace the existing link with a routed back-to back link
B.    Configure object tracking
C.    Set up more aggressive IGP timers
D.    Implements BFD on the link

Answer: B

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QUESTION 138
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QUESTION 21
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QUESTION 11
What is the optimum distance for a person sitting using the Cisco TelePresence System 500?

A.    the camera can adjust automatically
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QUESTION 392
Which two statements regarding the Cisco VCS search and transformation process are true? (Choose two.)

A.    The Cisco VCS applies the search rules in priority order (all rules with priority 255 are processed first, then rules with priority 254, and so on).
B.    Transforms do not use priority numbers.
C.    Presearch transforms are applied before call policy is configured and before user policy is applied.
D.    Presearch transforms are applied after call policy is configured but before user policy is applied.
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QUESTION 249
Some of yours users report issues when they are dialing extensions located in other branch offices. Sometimes the calls are set up successfully, and sometimes users experience problems during call setup. Which two reasons for the issue are true? (Choose two)

A.    Not enough bandwidth is available between the two locations and Automated Alternate Routing is disabled on this cluster.
B.    The Partition that contains the called extensions is not assigned to the line or device CSS of the calling users.
C.    A firewall rule blocks traffic between the branch offices so the call setup cannot be completed.
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QUESTION 21
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QUESTION 21
What are two advantages to running Fabric Path in the data center over using Spanning Tree? (Choose two.)

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B.    allows every switch to send BPDUs to each other to ensure the L2 topology is synchronized
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QUESTION 21
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QUESTION 31
Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)

311

A.    There are two broadcast domains in the network.
B.    There are four broadcast domains in the network.
C.    There are six broadcast domains in the network.
D.    There are four collision domains in the network.
E.    There are five collision domains in the network.
F.    There are seven collision domains in the network.

Answer: AF
Explanation:
Only router can break up broadcast domains so in the exhibit there are 2 broadcast domains: from e0 interface to the left is a broadcast domain and from e1 interface to the right is another broadcast domain ->.
Both router and switch can break up collision domains so there is only 1 collision domain on the left of the router (because hub doesn’t break up collision domain) and there are 6 collision domains on the right of the router (1 collision domain from e1 interface to the switch + 5 collision domains for 5 PCs in Production) ->

QUESTION 32
Which command enables RSTP on a switch?

A.    spanning-tree uplinkfast
B.    spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
C.    spanning-tree backbonefast
D.    spanning-tree mode mst

Answer: B
Explanation:
Ethernet network is a shared environment so all devices have the right to access to the medium. If more than one device transmits simultaneously, the signals collide and can not reach the destination.
If a device detects another device is sending, it will wait for a specified amount of time before attempting to transmit.
When there is no traffic detected, a device will transmit its message. While this transmission is occurring, the device continues to listen for traffic or collisions on the LAN. After the message is sent, the device returns to its default listening mode.

QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit. All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely problem?

331

A.    The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs.
B.    The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN.
C.    The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk.
D.    VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches.
E.    Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the switches.

Answer: C
Explanation:
In order to pass traffic from VLANs on different switches, the connections between the switches must be configured as trunk ports.

QUESTION 34
What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst switch?

A.    It creates a VLAN 999 interface.
B.    It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.
C.    It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.
D.    It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Configuring the Native VLAN for Untagged Traffic
A trunk port configured with 802.1Q tagging can receive both tagged and untagged traffic. By default, the switch forwards untagged traffic in the native VLAN configured for the port. The native VLAN is VLAN 1 by default.

QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?

351

A.    This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
B.    This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.
C.    This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
D.    This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Since the port is in the blocked status, we must assume that there is a shorter path to the root bridge elsewhere.

QUESTION 36
Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?

A.    Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.
B.    A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.
C.    A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.
D.    Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.
E.    Broadcast frames are never sent to switches.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Switches dynamically learn MAC addresses based on the source MAC addresses that it sees, and since a broadcast is never the source, it will never learn the broadcast address.

QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit. Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?

371

A.    It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B.    It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C.    It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D.    It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.

Answer: D
Explanation:
The root bridge is determined by the lowest bridge ID, and this switch has a bridge ID priority of 32768, which is higher than the roots priority of 20481.

QUESTION 38
Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link? (Choose two.)

A.    VTP
B.    802.1q
C.    IGP
D.    ISL
E.    802.3u

Answer: BD
Explanation:
Cisco switches can use two different encapsulation types for trunks, the industry standard 802.1q or the Cisco proprietary ISL. Generally, most network engineers prefer to use 802.1q since it is standards based and will interoperate with other vendors.

QUESTION 39
Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a Cisco switch?

A.    1 through 1001
B.    2 through 1001
C.    1 through 1002
D.    2 through 1005

Answer: B
Explanation:
VLAN 1 is the default VLAN on Cisco switch. It always exists and can not be added, modified or removed.
VLANs 1002-1005 are default VLANs for FDDI & Token Ring and they can’t be deleted or used for Ethernet.

QUESTION 40
Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?

A.    When a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the VLAN ID can be determined from the source
MAC address and the MAC address table.
B.    Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN.
C.    Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different VLAN.
D.    Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span across the ports.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Each VLAN resides in its own broadcast domain, so incoming frames with unknown destinations are only transmitted to ports that reside in the same VLAN as the incoming frame.

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QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a switch, you executed the show interface port-channel 1 etherchannel command and it returned this output.
Which information is provided by the Load value?

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QUESTION 31
Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)

A.    There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B.    A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C.    Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D.    In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network
media before transmitting.
E.    The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
Half-duplex Ethernet is defined in the original 802.3 Ethernet and Cisco says you only use one wire pair with a digital signal running in both directions on the wire. It also uses the CSMA/CD protocol to help prevent collisions and to permit retransmitting if a collision does occur. If a hub is attached to a switch, it must operate in half-duplex mode because the end stations must be able to detect collisions. Half-duplex Ethernet–typically 10BaseT–is only about 30 to 40 percent efficient as Cisco sees it, because a large 10BaseT network will usually only give you 3- to 4Mbps–at most. Full-duplex Ethernet uses two pairs of wires, instead of one wire pair like half duplex. Also, full duplex uses a point-to-point connection between the transmitter of the transmitting device and the receiver of the receiving device, which means that with full-duplex data transfer, you get a faster data transfer compared to half duplex. And because the transmitted data is sent on a different set of wires than the received data, no collisions occur. The reason you don’t need to worry about collisions is because now Full-duplex Ethernet is like a freeway with multiple lanes instead of the single-lane road provided by half duplex. Full-duplex Ethernet is supposed to offer 100 percent efficiency in both directions; this means you can get 20Mbps with a 10Mbps Ethernet running full duplex, or 200Mbps for FastEthernet.

QUESTION 32
Which router command can be used to determine the status of Serial 0/0?

A.    show ip route
B.    show interfaces
C.    show s0/0 status
D.    debug s0/0
E.    show run
F.    show version

Answer: B

QUESTION 33
What is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?

A.    172.16.0.0
B.    172.16.128.0
C.    172.16.156.0
D.    172.16.159.0
E.    172.16.159.128
F.    172.16.192.0

Answer: C
Explanation:
Converting to binary format it comes to
11111111.11111111.11111100.00000000 or
255.255.252.0
Starting with 172.16.0.0 and having increment of 4 we get.

QUESTION 34
An administrator is working with the 192.168.4.0 network, which has been subnetted with a /26 mask. Which two addresses can be assigned to hosts within the same subnet? (Choose two.)

A.    192.168.4.61
B.    192.168.4.63
C.    192.168.4.67
D.    192.168.4.125
E.    192.168.4.128
F.    192.168.4.132

Answer: CD
Explanation:
Only the values of host with 67 and 125 fall within the range of /26 CIDR subnet mask, all others lie beyond it.

QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit. The internetwork is using subnets of the address 192.168.1.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224. The routing protocol in use is RIP version 1.
Which address could be assigned to the FastEthernet interface on RouterA?

351

A.    192.168.1.31
B.    192.168.1.64
C.    192.168.1.127
D.    192.168.1.190
E.    192.168.1.192

Answer: D

QUESTION 36
What is the network address for the host with IP address 192.168.23.61/28?

A.    192.168.23.0
B.    192.168.23.32
C.    192.168.23.48
D.    192.168.23.56
E.    192.168.23.60

Answer: C
Explanation:
convert bit-length prefix to quad-dotted decimal representation, then from it find the number of bits used for subnetting you can find previously calculated number of subnets by separating subnets each having value of last bit used for subnet masking Find that your IP address is in which subnet, that subnet’s first address is network address and last address is broadcast address. Based on above steps the answer is option C.

QUESTION 37
What is the best practice when assigning IP addresses in a small office of six hosts?

A.    Use a DHCP server that is located at the headquarters.
B.    Use a DHCP server that is located at the branch office.
C.    Assign the addresses by using the local CDP protocol.
D.    Assign the addresses statically on each node.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Its best to use static addressing scheme where the number of systems is manageable rather than use dynamic protocol as it is easy to operate and manage.

QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit. The enterprise has decided to use the network address 172.16.0.0. The network administrator needs to design a classful addressing scheme to accommodate the three subnets, with 30, 40, and 50 hosts, as shown.
What subnet mask would accommodate this network?

381

A.    255.255.255.192
B.    255.255.255.224
C.    255.255.255.240
D.    255.255.255.248
E.    255.255.255.252

Answer: A

QUESTION 39
Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)

A.    The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B.    The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
C.    The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
D.    The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E.    The network is not subnetted.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a Class A address means that there are 15 subnet bits and 9 host bits. The block size in the third octet is 2 (256 – 254). So this makes the subnets in 0, 2, 4, 6, etc., all the way to 254. The host 10.16.3.65 is in the 2.0 subnet. The next subnet is 4.0, so the broadcast address for the 2.0 subnet is 3.255. The valid host addresses are 2.1 through 3.254

QUESTION 40
Given a Class C IP address subnetted with a /30 subnet mask, how many valid host IP addresses are available on each of the subnets?

A.    1
B.    2
C.    4
D.    8
E.    252
F.    254

Answer: B
Explanation:
/30 CIDR corresponds to mask 55.255.255.252 whose binary is 11111100 which means 6 subnet bits and 2 host bits which means 62 subnets and 2 hosts per subnet.

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QUESTION 334
You must identify and isolate traffic loss. Which option do you configure to monitor EPG-to-EPG traffic within a tenant?

A.    SPAN
B.    traffic map
C.    tcpdump
D.    atomic counters Continue reading [2018-3-22] Easily Pass Cisco 300-180 Exam With Lead2pass Latest Cisco 300-180 Brain Dumps

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