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QUESTION 21
Which two attacks target the data link layer in a switched environment? (Choose two.)

A.    VLAN attacks
B.    IP source routing
C.    MAC address floods
D.    DHCP-based IP redirection attacks
E.    Spanning-tree attacks

Answer: CE

QUESTION 22
Which statement about IPsec and IPv6 is true?

A.    IPsec is available only with IPv6.
B.    IPsec support is mandatory in IPv4.
C.    IPsec support is mandatory in IPv6.
D.    In order to use IPsec with IPv6, IPv6 must be tunneled over IPv4.

Answer: C

QUESTION 23
Which two features of AMP are available in Cisco AMP for Networks that are not available in Cisco AMP for Content alone? (Choose two.)

A.    trajectory
B.    retrospective security
C.    dynamic analytics
D.    behavioral indications of compromise
E.    fuzzy fingerprinting
F.    one-to-one signature

Answer: AD

QUESTION 24
Which solution is the most effective for virus cleanup?

A.    Cisco Firewall with Authorized Access
B.    Cisco DMVPN with GRE Tunnels
C.    Cisco Easy VPN with Remote-Site Device Management
D.    Cisco AMP for Networks with File Trajectory
E.    Cisco SIO with Increased Visibility
F.    Cisco ISE with Automated Policy Tuning

Answer: D

QUESTION 25
What is the primary reason that customers need content security today?

A.    Companies are more spread out than ever before.
B.    Organizations need to block high-risk websites.
C.    Network traffic is growing at an exponential rate.
D.    Storage is moving from on-premises to cloud-based.
E.    More business is done using the web and email than ever before.

Answer: E

QUESTION 26
Which feature of content security enables administrators to block Facebook videos while allowing posts and messages?

A.    dynamic content analysis
B.    Cisco Application Visibility and Control
C.    centralized management and reporting
D.    encryption

Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Reputation filtering performs which two functions? (Choose two.)

A.    rates each site based on a reputation score
B.    automatically updates devices based on threats
C.    tunes itself according to relevance to the network
D.    communicates with Cisco SenderBase, which is a common security database
E.    analyzes in-depth parameters for anything that requests network access

Answer: AD

QUESTION 28
If a customer complains that employees access websites for work but then waste time with games and videos, which solution should you suggest, and why?

A.    Cisco AMP, for protection before, during, and after attacks
B.    Cisco WSA, for its URL filtering ability
C.    Cisco RSA, for its data loss prevention
D.    Cisco WSA, for its application visibility and control
E.    Cisco ESA, for its global threat operations
F.    Cisco ESA, for its antivirus capabilities

Answer: D

QUESTION 29
What is the main reason that customers need Cisco Secure Access?

A.    Companies use more social media than ever before.
B.    Organizations need to block high-risk websites.
C.    Network traffic is growing at an exponential rate.
D.    Storage is moving from on-premises to cloud-based.
E.    More devices are connecting on and off campus.
F.    More business is done using the web and email than ever before.

Answer: E

QUESTION 30
In the Cisco TrustSec “User to Data Center Access Control” use case, which users typically have access to the company data center?

A.    suppliers
B.    employees
C.    noncompliant users
D.    guests

Answer: B

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QUESTION 61
Which three of the following tasks can be performed using Cisco Unified Real-Time Monitoring Tool? (Choose three.)

A.    collect trace files
B.    stop and start Cisco Unified CCX services
C.    view syslog messages
D.    perform backup and restore functions
E.    monitor the health of the Cisco Unified CCX system

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QUESTION 21
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QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit which two statement about the given IPV6 ZBF configuration are true? (Choose two)

211

A.    It provides backward compability with legacy IPv6 inspection
B.    It inspect TCP, UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic from Z1 to Z2.
C.    It inspect TCP, UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic from Z2 to Z1.
D.    It inspect TCP,UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic in both direction between z1 and z2.
E.    It passes TCP, UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic from z1 to z2.
F.    It provide backward compatibility with legacy IPv4 inseption.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 22
In which class of applications security threads does HTTP header manipulation reside?

A.    Session management
B.    Parameter manipulation
C.    Software tampering
D.    Exception managements

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.cgisecurity.com/owasp/html/ch11s04.html
Session management doesn’t have anything to do with HTTP header

QUESTION 23
What is the most commonly used technology to establish an encrypted HTTP connection?

A.    the HTTP/1.1 Upgrade header
B.    the HTTP/1.0 Upgrade header
C.    Secure Hypertext Transfer Protocol
D.    HTTPS

Answer: D

QUESTION 24
What functionality is provided by DNSSEC?

A.    origin authentication of DNS data
B.    data confidentiality of DNS queries and answers
C.    access restriction of DNS zone transfers
D.    storage of the certificate records in a DNS zone file

Answer: A

QUESTION 25
What are the two mechanism that are used to authenticate OSPFv3 packets?(Choose two)

A.    MD5
B.    ESP
C.    PLAIN TEXT
D.    AH
E.    SHA

Answer: BD

QUESTION 26
You have been asked to configure a Cisco ASA appliance in multiple mode with these settings:

(A) You need two customer contexts, named contextA and contextB
(B) Allocate interfaces G0/0 and G0/1 to contextA
(C) Allocate interfaces G0/0 and G0/2 to contextB
(D) The physical interface name for G0/1 within contextA should be “inside”.
(E) All other context interfaces must be viewable via their physical interface names.

If the admin context is already defined and all interfaces are enabled, which command set will complete this configuration?

A.    context contextA
config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
context contextB
config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 visible
B.    context contexta
config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
context contextb
config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 visible
C.    context contextA
config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 invisible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
context contextB
config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 invisible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 invisible
D.    context contextA
config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
context contextB
config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2
E.    context contextA
config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
context contextB
config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 visible
allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 visible

Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which statement about the cisco anyconnect web security module is true ?

A.    It is VPN client software that works over the SSl protocol.
B.    It is an endpoint component that is used with smart tunnel in a clientless SSL VPN.
C.    It operates as an NAC agent when it is configured with the Anyconnect VPN client.
D.    It is deployed on endpoints to route HTTP traffic to SCANsafe

Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which two statements about the SeND protocol are true? (Choose two)

A.    It uses IPsec as a baseline mechanism
B.    It supports an autoconfiguration mechanism
C.    It must be enabled before you can configure IPv6 addresses
D.    It supports numerous custom neighbor discovery messages
E.    It counters neighbor discovery threats
F.    It logs IPv6-related threats to an external log server

Answer: BE

Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ips/6-1/configuration/guide/cli/cliguide/cli_signature_engines.html#wp1141808

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QUESTION 21
What IOS commands display MPLS label mapping on an LSR?

A.    Show mpls ldp parameters
B.    Show mpls ldp bindings
C.    Show mpls forwading-table
D.    Show mpls ldp discovery
E.    Show mpls ldp neighbor detail

Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Drag and Drop Questions

221

Answer:

222

QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. The vrf MAINT has been provisioned and used by the Service Provider management network. The engineer discovers that syslog messages are not being received on the syslog server. IP reachability has been validated using ping.
Which issue in the configuration must be corrected?

231

A.    logging on must include the vrf MAINT keyword.
B.    logging host must include the vrf MAINT keyword.
C.    The logging facility must be configured for syslog processing.
D.    The route targets that are configured do not match the route distinguisher.

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2sr/12_2sra/feature/guide/srvrfslg.html#wp1059076

QUESTION 24
Which are the three header fields that affect how Equal-Cost Multipath hashes traffic flow into interface groups? (Choose three.)

A.    source MAC address
B.    source port
C.    source IP address
D.    destination IP address
E.    IP protocol ID
F.    destination MAC address

Answer: BCD

QUESTION 25
An R1 router requires an equal load balancing to reach the prefix 192.168.0.0/16 over two exit points: through R2 and R3 routers. Which two options must be configured on the R1 router to achieve this goal? (Choose two.)

A.    The BGP maximum path feature must be configured on R1.
B.    The BGP PIC core must be enabled on R1
C.    Weight, local-pref, MED, as-path length, origin, and the BGP next-hop IGP cost must be the same for the R2 and R3 IBGP updates to R1.
D.    The BGP Link Bandwidth feature must be applied on R1.
E.    BGP extended community exchange must be enabled between IBGP neighbors.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
BGP link-bandwidth is for unequal-cost routes.

QUESTION 26
A company is deciding between an HVR and SVR solution in order to finalize a virtualization project proposal. Which is an advantage of a HVR solution versus a SVR solution?

A.    A HVR solution implements dedicated data plane resources.
B.    A HVR solution implements shared control plane resources.
C.    A HVR solution introduces significant contention of resources.
D.    A HVR solution implements dedicated chassis resources.

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/solutions/collateral/ns341/ns524/ns562/ns573/white_paper_c11-512753_ns573_Networking_Solutions_White_Paper.html

QUESTION 27
Which three of these are optical channel data unit (ODU) overhead fields? (Choose three)

A.    general communication channel 0 (GCC0)
B.    section monitoring
C.    reserved (RES)
D.    general communication channels 1 and 2 (GCC1 GCC2)
E.    tandem connection monitoring activation deactivation (TCM ACT)

Answer: CDE

QUESTION 28
Which three modes are the operating of HDLC? (Choose three)

A.    asynchronous balanced mode (ABM)
B.    normal response mode (NRM)
C.    normal peer mode (NPM)
D.    asynchronous client mode (ACM)
E.    asynchronous response mode (ARM)

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
Asynchronous response mode is an HDLC addition[1] for use over full-duplex links. While retaining the primary/secondary distinction, it allows the secondary to transmit at any time. Asynchronous balanced mode added the concept of a combined terminal which can act as both a primary and a secondary. There are some subtleties about this mode of operation; while many features of the protocol do not care whether they are in a command or response frame, some do, and the address field of a received frame must be examined to determine whether it contains a command (the address received is ours) or a response (the address received is that of the other terminal).

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QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. A user is going through a series of dialing steps on a SIP Type B IP phone (for example, a Cisco 7975) to call an SCCP IP phone. Both phones are registered to the same Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. Assuming the calling SIP phone is associated with a SIP Dial Rule with a pattern value of 2001, which statement about the call setup process of this call is true?

211

A.    Each digit will arrive at Cisco Unified Communications Manager in a SIP NOTIFY message as a KPML
event, and Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend the call as soon as the collected digits
match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, bypassing class of service configuration on both IP phones.
B.    Each digit will arrive at Cisco Unified Communications Manager in a SIP NOTIFY message as a KPML
event. When the collected digits match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, Cisco Unified Communications
Manager
will extend the call only if the class of service configuration on both phones permits this action.
C.    As soon as the user selects the Dial softkey, the SIP IP phone will forward all digits to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend
the call as soon as the collected digits match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, bypassing class of service
configuration on both IP phones.
D.    As soon as the user selects the Dial softkey, the SIP IP phone will forward all digits to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend
the call only if class of service configuration on both phones permits this action.
E.    The SIP IP phone will wait for the interdigit timer to expire, and then send all digits to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend
the call as soon as the collected digits match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, bypassing class of
service configuration on both IP phones.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Cisco Type B SIP Phones offer functionality based SIP INVITE Message. Every key the end user presses triggers an individual SIP message. The first event is communicated with a SIP INVITE, but subsequent messages use SIP NOTIFY messages. The SIP NOTIFY messages send KPML events corresponding to any buttons or soft keys pressed by the user. Cisco Type B SIP IP Phones with SIP dial rules operate in the same manner as Cisco Type A phones with dial rules.

QUESTION 22
What does a comma accomplish when it is used in a SIP Dial Rule pattern that is associated with a Cisco 9971 IP Phone that is registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A.    It inserts a 500-millisecond pause between digits.
B.    It causes the phone to generate a secondary dial tone.
C.    It is a delimiter and has no significant dialing impact.
D.    It indicates a timeout value of 5000 milliseconds.
E.    It is an obsolete parameter and will be ignored.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Comma is accepted in speed dial as delimiter and pause. -Comma used to delineate dial string, FAC, CMC, and post connect digits For post connect digits, commas insert a 2 second delay Commas may be duplicated to create longer delays

QUESTION 23
Which Call Admission Control mechanism is supported for the Cisco Extension Mobility Cross Cluster solution?

A.    Location CAC
B.    RSVP CAC
C.    H.323 gatekeeper
D.    intercluster Enhanced Location CAC
E.    visiting cluster’s LBM hub

Answer: B
Explanation:
Configuring extension mobility cross cluster (EMCC) is nothing you should take lightly. EMCC requires a lot of configuration parameters including the exporting and importing of each neighbor cluster’s X.509v3 digital certificates. EMCC is supported over SIP trunks only. Presence is another feature that’s only supported over SIP trunks. If you want to be able to perform scalable Call Admission Control (CAC) in a distributed multi- cluster call processing model, you will need to point an H.225 or Gatekeeper controlled trunk to an H.323 Gatekeeper for CAC… but if you want to support presence and EMCC between clusters and maintain CAC.

QUESTION 24
Which two Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP profile configuration parameters for a SIP intercluster trunk are mandatory to enable end-to-end RSVP SIP Preconditions between clusters? (Choose two.)

A.    Set the RSVP over SIP parameter to Local RSVP.
B.    Set the RSVP over SIP parameter to E2E.
C.    Set the SIP Rel1XX Options parameter to Disabled.
D.    Set the SIP Rel1XX Options parameter to Send PRACK If 1xx Contains SDP.
E.    Set the SIP Rel1XX Options parameter to Send PRACK for All 1xx Messages.
F.    Check the Fall Back to Local RSVP check box.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
Each Unified Communications Manager cluster and Unified CME should have the same configuration information. For example, Application ID should be the same on each Unified Communications Manager cluster and Unified CME. RSVP Service parameters should be the same on each Unified Communications Manager cluster.

QUESTION 25
What is the number of directory URIs with which a Cisco Unified Communications Manager directory number can be associated?

A.    1
B.    up to 2
C.    up to 3
D.    up to 4
E.    up to 5

Answer: E
Explanation:
Cisco Unified Communications Manager supports dialing using directory URIs for call addressing. Directory URIs look like email addresses and follow the username@host format where the host portion is an IPv4 address or a fully qualified domain name. A directory URI is a uniform resource identifier, a string of characters that can be used to identify a directory number. If that directory number is assigned to a phone, Cisco Unified Communications Manager can route calls to that phone using the directory URI. URI dialing is available for SIP and SCCP endpoints that support directory URIs.

QUESTION 26
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager partition will be associated with a directory URI that is configured for an end user with a primary extension?

A.    null
B.    none
C.    directory URI
D.    default
E.    any partition that the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administrator desires

Answer: C
Explanation:
Cisco Unified Communications Manager supports dialing using directory URIs for call addressing. Directory URIs look like email addresses and follow the username@host format where the host portion is an IPv4 address or a fully qualified domain name. A directory URI is a uniform resource identifier, a string of characters that can be used to identify a directory number. If that directory number is assigned to a phone, Cisco Unified Communications Manager can route calls to that phone using the directory URI. URI dialing is available for SIP and SCCP endpoints that support directory URIs.

QUESTION 27
Which Call Control Discovery function allows the local Cisco Unified Communications Manager to listen for advertisements from remote call-control entities that use the SAF network?

A.    CCD advertising service
B.    CCD requesting service
C.    SAF forwarder
D.    SAF enabled trunks
E.    CCD registration service

Answer: B
Explanation:
SAF and CCD will allow large distributed multi-cluster deployments to have the directory number (DN) ranges of each call routing element advertised dynamically over SAF. Cisco routers act as SAF Forwarders (SAFF), while the call routing elements (e.g. CUCM) act as clients that register with the routers to advertise their DN ranges and listen to the advertisements of other routers.

QUESTION 28
Which codec complexity mode, when deployed on Cisco IOS routers with DSPs using the C5510 chipset, supports the most G.711 calls per DSP?

A.    Low
B.    Medium
C.    High
D.    Secure
E.    Flex

Answer: E
Explanation:
The flex parameter allows the complexity to automatically adjust to either medium or high complexity depending on the needs of a call. For example, if a call uses the G.711 codec, the C5510 chipset automatically adjusts to the medium-complexity mode. However, if the call uses G.729, the C5510 chipset uses the high complexity mode

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QUESTION 21
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QUESTION 31
A security consultant decides to use multiple layers of anti-virus defense, such as end user desktop anti- virus and E-mail gateway. This approach can be used to mitigate which kind of attack?

A.    Forensic attack
B.    ARP spoofing attack
C.    Social engineering attack
D.    Scanning attack

Answer: C

QUESTION 32
Which of the following resources does NMAP need to be used as a basic vulnerability scanner covering several vectors like SMB, HTTP and FTP?

A.    Metasploit scripting engine
B.    Nessus scripting engine
C.    NMAP scripting engine
D.    SAINT scripting engine

Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Which of the following scanning tools is specifically designed to find potential exploits in Microsoft Windows products?

A.    Microsoft Security Baseline Analyzer
B.    Retina
C.    Core Impact
D.    Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer

Answer: D

QUESTION 34
A security analyst is performing an audit on the network to determine if there are any deviations from the security policies in place. The analyst discovers that a user from the IT department had a dial-out modem installed. Which security policy must the security analyst check to see if dial-out modems are allowed?

A.    Firewall-management policy
B.    Acceptable-use policy
C.    Remote-access policy
D.    Permissive policy

Answer: C

QUESTION 35
When creating a security program, which approach would be used if senior management is supporting and enforcing the security policy?

A.    A bottom-up approach
B.    A top-down approach
C.    A senior creation approach
D.    An IT assurance approach

Answer: B

QUESTION 36
Which of the following processes evaluates the adherence of an organization to its stated security policy?

A.    Vulnerability assessment
B.    Penetration testing
C.    Risk assessment
D.    Security auditing

Answer: D

QUESTION 37
A security consultant is trying to bid on a large contract that involves penetration testing and reporting. The company accepting bids wants proof of work so the consultant prints out several audits that have been performed. Which of the following is likely to occur as a result?

A.    The consultant will ask for money on the bid because of great work.
B.    The consultant may expose vulnerabilities of other companies.
C.    The company accepting bids will want the same type of format of testing.
D.    The company accepting bids will hire the consultant because of the great work performed.

Answer: B

QUESTION 38
Which type of scan is used on the eye to measure the layer of blood vessels?

A.    Facial recognition scan
B.    Retinal scan
C.    Iris scan
D.    Signature kinetics scan

Answer: B

QUESTION 39
What is the main reason the use of a stored biometric is vulnerable to an attack?

A.    The digital representation of the biometric might not be unique, even if the physical characteristic is unique.
B.    Authentication using a stored biometric compares a copy to a copy instead of the original to a copy.
C.    A stored biometric is no longer “something you are” and instead becomes “something you have”.
D.    A stored biometric can be stolen and used by an attacker to impersonate the individual identified by the biometric.

Answer: D

QUESTION 40
During a wireless penetration test, a tester detects an access point using WPA2 encryption. Which of the following attacks should be used to obtain the key?

A.    The tester must capture the WPA2 authentication handshake and then crack it.
B.    The tester must use the tool inSSIDer to crack it using the ESSID of the network.
C.    The tester cannot crack WPA2 because it is in full compliance with the IEEE 802.11i standard.
D.    The tester must change the MAC address of the wireless network card and then use the AirTraf tool to obtain the key.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 101
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator previously configured a XenDesktop Site to use evaluation licenses. The administrator has recently installed valid Enterprise licenses on the Citrix License Server and confirmed that licenses show correctly in the licensing console. However, a user reported an issue about logging on to the published desktop. The user received an error message stating that the evaluation license is about to expire.

What should the administrator do to fix this issue?

A.    Restart the License service
B.    Change the product Edition in Citrix Studio
C.    Remove the stale registry entries from License Server
D.    Verify the host name entry in the license file

Answer: A

QUESTION 102
A Citrix Administrator wants to use NetScaler Gateway to allow external users to access internal resources securely.

Which three functionalities will the NetScaler Gateway provide to allow access to internal resources on behalf of external users? (Choose three.)

A.    Allow secured external connections to StoreFront (reverse Web Proxy)
B.    Authenticate Users
C.    Enumerate resources
D.    Allow secured access to internal hosted applications (HDX Proxy)
E.    Aggregate resources

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 103
Which tool can be used to simulate multiple sessions of auto-creating printers using the same non-native printers?

A.    Windows Performance Kit
B.    Print Detective
C.    Citrix UPS Print Driver Certification
D.    StressPrinters

Answer: D

QUESTION 104
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to secure XML traffic to an existing XenDesktop environment. The Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS) is NOT installed on the Delivery Controller with the IP address 10.110.4.10.

The organization mandates that a public certificate authority (CA) server should be used for securing all communication traffic.

After successfully testing the changes, the administrator will make the necessary changes within StoreFront.

Which two steps should the administrator take to make the necessary changes? (Choose two.)

A.    Run the PowerShell command: BrokerService -WiSsIPort 443
B.    Change the registry value of XmlServicesSsIPort HKLM\SOFTWARE\Citrix\DesktopServer to 443
C.    Create a Domain Certificate
D.    Create a certificate Requesr
E.    Run the command: netsh http add sslcert ipport=10.110.4.10:443

Answer: A

QUESTION 105
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is investigating an instability in the system that is causing the Print Spooler service to stop frequently on the XenApp server. The administrator finds printer driver conflicts in the environment.
Which policy can the administrator use to resolve this issue and remove the unwanted printer drivers on the XenApp server?

A.    Use only printer model specific drivers
B.    Automatic Installation of in-box printer drivers
C.    Auto-connect all client printers
D.    Use universal printing only if requested driver is unavailable

Answer: D

QUESTION 106
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator will use PowerShell to configure a new restart schedule for the Windows 2016 Server OS group named “Win2016-ServerOS” within the company’s XenDesktop infrastructure.

The administrator needs the machines in the Server OS group to restart at a time when NO users will be accessing them: beginning at 23:00 h (11 PM) each day, with 30-minute intervals between each machine restart.

Which PowerShell command should the administrator use?

A.    Set-BrokerRebootScheduleV2 ­Name XYZ-ServerOS-DailyReboot-DesktopGroupName Win2016-ServerOS ­Frequency Daily ­StartTime “11:00” ­Enabled $true ­RebootDuration
B.    Set-BrokerRebootSchedule ­Name XYZ-ServerOS-DailyReboot-DesktopGroupName Win2016-ServerOS ­Frequency Daily ­StartTime “23:00” ­Enabled $true ­RebootDuration
C.    New-BrokerRebootSchedule ­Name XYZ-ServerOS-DailyReboot-DesktopGroupName Win2016-ServerOS ­Frequency Daily ­StartTime “11:00” ­Enabled $true ­RebootDuration
D.    New-BrokerRebootScheduleV2 ­Name XYZ-ServerOS-DailyReboot- DesktopGroupName Win2016-ServerOS ­Frequency Daily ­StartTime “23:00” ­Enabled $true ­RebootDuration 30

Answer: A

QUESTION 107
A Citrix Administrator needs to review the Delivery Group  historical data from the last 200 days. Which tool allows the administrator to view this data?

A.    Citrix Studio – Delivery Groups
B.    Citrix Director – Dashboard
C.    Citrix Studio – Applications
D.    Citrix Director – Trends

Answer: D

QUESTION 108
Which Layer contains the Citrix Director in a XenApp and XenDesktop Architecture model?

A.    Resource
B.    User
C.    Control
D.    Access

Answer: C

QUESTION 109
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to deploy Receiver to a group of new users who use restricted workstations that do NOT allow applications to be installed locally on them. These users are internal to the company and connect directly to the XenDesktop environment via Storefront.

Which deployment option is optimal for these new users?

A.    Receiver for Web deployed from StoreFront
B.    Native Receiver deployed through Active Directory scripting
C.    Receiver for HTML5 deployed through client web browser
D.    Native Receiver deployed through group policy

Answer: A

QUESTION 110
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator has been receiving calls from users stating that they are receiving new sessions instead of reconnecting to their disconnected sessions. The administrator investigated the issue and found the sessions are in a disconnected state when the users leave work.

What should the administrator configure inStoreFront to allow the users to reconnect to their disconnected sessions while roaming?

A.    Session Lingering
B.    Session Pre-Launch
C.    Workspace Control
D.    Session Timeout

Answer: A

QUESTION 111
An organization needs fewer printers created during session startup, so that sessions start faster. Which policy allows the Citrix Administrator to achieve this goal?

A.    Client Printer Redirection
B.    Direct Connections to Print Servers
C.    Printer Properties Retention
D.    Auto-Create Client Printers

Answer: D

QUESTION 112
A Citrix Administrator needs to join a XenDesktop Controller to an existing site that is configured to use a mirrored SQL server database.

Using Citrix Studio, which two methods can the administrator choose to meet this requirement? (Choose two.)

A.    Run the Join Existing Wizard, select “Update the database manually”; generate scripts and run them in Administrative Power Shell Window on SQL Server
B.    Run the Join Existing Wizard, select “Update the database manually”; generate scripts and run them on SQL Server Management Studio in SQLCMD mode
C.    Run the Join Existing Wizard, select “Update the database automatically”; mirroring is detected without user intervention
D.    Run the Join Existing Wizard, select “Update the database automatically”; mirroring can be configured later on

Answer: BC

QUESTION 113
Which two cloud providers are supported with XenApp and XenDesktop 7.15? (Choose two.)

A.    Amazon Web Services
B.    Google Cloud Services
C.    Microsoft Azure
D.    IBM Cloud

Answer: AC

QUESTION 114
Which tool can a Citrix Administrator use to collect information to investigate issues with session performance?

A.    XDPing
B.    CDF Control
C.    XenDesktop Site Checker
D.    HDX Monitor

Answer: C

QUESTION 115
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator implemented XenApp/XenDesktop to centrally host applications for internal and external users.
Recently, the SQL servers hosting the Site database experienced a major problem. As a result, the database is corrupted and the administrator needs to restore the Site database from backup.

Which precautionary action must the administrator consider before restoring the Site database?

A.    Nullify the connection strings from the registry using PowerShell so that the controllers do NOT connect to the database
B.    Remove any hotfixes applied after the backup before performing the restore
C.    Verify that all Delivery Controllers are shut down
D.    Verify that the restore option in SQL Studio is set to  ITH RESTRICTED_USER?

Answer: B

QUESTION 116
Which piece of License Server information does a Citrix Administrator need in order to allocate and download the XenDesktop license file from mycitrix.com?

A.    IP Address
B.    MAC Address
C.    Hostname
D.    FQDN

Answer: B

QUESTION 117
Which printer tool helps enumerate all printer drivers from a specified Windows machine, including driver- specific information, and allows deletion of unwanted drivers?

A.    Citrix UPS Print Driver Certification
B.    Windows Performance Kit
C.    StressPrinters
D.    Print Detective

Answer: D

QUESTION 118
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to configure StoreFront to allow external users to access internal resources. The external users will authenticate on StoreFront.

Which Storefront Authentication method will the administrator configure?

A.    HTTP Basic
B.    Username and password
C.    Smart Card
D.    Pass-through from NetScaler Gateway

Answer: D

QUESTION 119
What is the order of precedence, from highest to lowest, for the different policy types that can be used to configure Citrix policies?

A.    Site local (created in Citrix Studio), Organizational Unit GPO, Domain GPO, Site GPO, Local Computer
B.    Local Computer, Site local (created in Citrix Studio), Site GPO, Domain GPO, Organizational Unit GPO
C.    Organizational Unit GPO, Domain GPO, Site GPO, Site local (created in Citrix Studio), local Computer
D.    Local Computer, Site local (created in Citrix Studio), Organizational Unit GPO, Domain GPO, Site GPO

Answer: C

QUESTION 120
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is working on a published application. The network connection remains for 240 seconds but is interrupted, and applications become unusable. The session then prompts for authentication. After the administrator successfully authenticates, the session is reconnected.

Which policy makes this possible?

A.    Load Management
B.    Auto Client Reconnect
C.    ICA Keep Alive
D.    Session Reliability

Answer: D

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QUESTION 21
Which two EAP types require server side certificates? (Choose two.)

A.    EAP-TLS
B.    EAP-PEAP
C.    EAP-MD5
D.    LEAP
E.    EAP-FAST
F.    MSCHAPv2

Answer: AB

QUESTION 22
Where is client traffic decrypted in a controller-based wireless network protected with WPA2 Security?

A.    Access Point
B.    Switch
C.    Wireless LAN Controller
D.    Authentication Server

Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which setting provides the best security for a WLAN and authenticates users against a centralized directory store?

A.    WPA2 AES-CCMP and 801.X authentication
B.    WPA2 AES-CCMP and PSK authentication
C.    WPA2 TKIP and PSK authentication
D.    WPA2 TKIP and 802.1X authentication

Answer: A

QUESTION 24
What is a feature of Cisco WLC and IPS synchronization?

A.    Cisco WLC populates the ACLs to prevent repeat intruder attacks.
B.    The IPS automatically send shuns to Cisco WLC for an active host block.
C.    Cisco WLC and IPS synchronization enables faster wireless access.
D.    IPS synchronization uses network access points to provide reliable monitoring.

Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which two components are required to connect to a WLAN network that is secured by EAP-TLS authentication? (Choose two.)

A.    Kerberos authentication server
B.    AAA/RADIUS server
C.    PSKs
D.    CA server

Answer: BD

QUESTION 26
Which statement about Cisco Management Frame Protection is true?

A.    It enables stations to remain in power-save mode, except at specified intervals to receive data
from the access point.
B.    It detects spoofed MAC addresses.
C.    It identifies potential RF jamming attacks.
D.    It protects against frame and device spoofing.

Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which three statements about the Cisco wireless IPS solution are true? (Choose three.)

A.    It enables stations to remain in power-save mode, except at specified intervals to receive data from
the access point.
B.    It detects spoofed MAC addresses.
C.    It identifies potential RF jamming attacks.
D.    It protects against frame and device spoofing.
E.    It allows the WLC to failover because of congestion.

Answer: BCD

QUESTION 28
In a basic ACS deployment consisting of two servers, for which three tasks is the primary server responsible? (Choose three.)

A.    configuration
B.    authentication
C.    sensing
D.    policy requirements
E.    monitoring
F.    repudiation

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 29
In a split ACS deployment with primary and secondary servers, which three statements about AAA load handling are true? (Choose three.)

A.    During normal operations, each server processes the full workload of both servers.
B.    If a AAA connectivity problem occurs, the servers split the full load of authentication requests.
C.    If a AAA connectivity problem occurs, each server processes the full workload of both servers.
D.    During normal operations, the servers split the full load of authentication requests.
E.    During normal operations, each server is used for specific operations, such as device administration
and network admission.
F.    The primary servers are used to distribute policy information to other servers in the enterprise.

Answer: CDE

QUESTION 30
Which three personas can a Cisco ISE assume in a deployment? (Choose three.)

A.    connection
B.    authentication
C.    administration
D.    testing
E.    policy service
F.    monitoring

Answer: CEF

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