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QUESTION 21
A Citrix Administrator needs to configure single sign-on to a StoreFront server using an external, secure single URL.

Which type of virtual server can the administrator use to meet this requirement?

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B.    Content Switching
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QUESTION 51
Scenario: Users of the Finance group lost access to their local drive through their desktop-hosted applications. Due to this issue, those users missed a critical deadline. Now management has requested that a Citrix Administrator provide a report of recent changes to the environment.

Which tool could the administrator use to generate a report of recent changes to the environment?

A.    Event logs
B.    StoreFront
C.    Citrix Studio
D.    Citrix Director

Answer: C

QUESTION 52
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to audit logins from the NetScaler Gateway. Company policy states that the logs need to be sent to a centralized server.

What should the administrator configure to audit ICA sessions on the NetScaler Gateway?

A.    SYSLOG
B.    HDX Monitoring
C.    Application Firewall
D.    Configuration Logging
E.    NetScaler Web Logging

Answer: A

QUESTION 53
A Citrix Administrator has received several reports of network connectivity issues throughout the day and thinks these issues might be affecting the vDisk assigned to Desktop OS machines.

What should the administrator monitor to determine if the network issues have affected disk streaming?

A.    NetStat Utility
B.    Error messages in Citrix Studio
C.    The number of warning messages in Citrix Director
D.    The number of retries performed by the Streaming service

Answer: D

QUESTION 54
A Citrix Administrator monitoring virtual machine network performance is unable to see memory utilization data in XenCenter.

Why is the administrator unable to monitor memory utilization data?

A.    SR-IOV is NOT configured.
B.    Performance monitor service is NOT running.
C.    XenServer tools are NOT installed on the virtual machines.
D.    Additional administrative rights are required to monitor memory utilization.

Answer: C

QUESTION 55
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator created a new Delivery Group named ‘Sales’ and assigned Desktop OS machines to users who are members of the Delivery Group. The Server OS machines assigned to the Delivery Group are based on Windows Server 2012 R2.

Where should the administrator look to identify the number of active sessions to Server OS machines assigned to the ‘Sales’ Delivery Group?

A.    Filter in Citrix Studio
B.    Event Log on the StoreFront server
C.    Event Log on the Delivery Controller server
D.    Filter by collection in the Provisioning Services Console

Answer: A

QUESTION 56
Scenario: When a Citrix Administrator attempts to shadow a user connected to a Desktop OS machine, the following error is displayed:

Failed to initiate Remote Assistance

What could be the cause of this issue?

A.    Remote Assistance is NOT enabled on the host machine.
B.    The administrator created a firewall exception for port 3398.
C.    The administrator added Citrix Director to the Intranet Zone trusted sites.
D.    The administrator does NOT have the proper scope for the user’s Desktop OS machine.

Answer: A

QUESTION 57
A Citrix Administrator needs to obtain logs from Machine Creation Services.

Which .config file should the administrator manually modify to enable logging?

A.    BrokerService.exe.Config
B.    Citrix.Configuration.SdkWcfEndpoint.exe.Config
C.    Citrix.MachineIdentity.SdkWcfEndpoint.exe.Config
D.    Citrix.MachineCreation.SdkWcfEndpoint.exe.Config

Answer: D

QUESTION 58
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator created a Device Collection and a Delivery Group for the Human Resources (HR) and Accounting user groups. The administrator used the XenDesktop Setup Wizard to create the Desktop OS machines and assigned the V: drive as their personal drives. While testing all the new configurations prior to rolling out the Desktop OS machines to the HR user group, the administrator receives an error when attempting to access the V: drive. Users from the Accounting user group do NOT receive the error.

Click on the Exhibit button to view the error.

581

How could the administrator resolve this issue?

A.    Change the V: drive to another drive letter.
B.    Run the inventory update on the master image and release the image to the HR user group.
C.    Recreate the master image with Personal vDisk and release that image to the HR user group.
D.    Delete all of the Desktop OS machines and rerun the Streamed VM Setup Wizard to recreate the Desktop OS machines.

Answer: A

QUESTION 59
Scenario: An employee attempts to log in to a Desktop OS machine and receives the following error:

Startup Failed
Personal vDisk failed to start
Status Code: 15

How could a Citrix Administrator resolve this issue?

A.    Change the startup order.
B.    Restart the Desktop OS machine.
C.    Run an inventory update on the Desktop OS machine.
D.    Reconfigure the Virtual Delivery Agent of the affected Desktop OS machine.

Answer: C

QUESTION 60
Scenario: An application is NOT functioning as expected. The application was installed on a vDisk that has been placed in Standard mode. The vDisk is assigned to Desktop OS machines. Those Desktop OS machines have a 5 GB cache disk associated with them and the vDisk is configured to ‘cache to RAM with overflow to disk’. A Citrix Administrator attempted to view the Windows event logs from the previous week, but the logs only go back to the most recent restart.

What should the administrator do to ensure that all logs are retained?

A.    Enable WINRM on the image.
B.    Change the location of the write cache.
C.    Use the write-eventlog PowerShell cmdlet.
D.    Change the path of the event logs to that of the write cache disk.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
A process owner has been identified with an “I” in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following would be expected of them?

A.    Be accountable for the outcome of an activity
B.    Perform an activity
C.    Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity
D.    Manage an activity

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following are objectives of service level management?

1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of FT services to be provided
2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
4: Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in

A.    1, 2 and 3 only
B.    1 and 2 only
C.    1, 2 and 4 only
D.    All of the above

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?

A.    Components
B.    Processes
C.    The end-to-end service
D.    Customer satisfaction

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?

A.    Capacity management
B.    Incident management
C.    Service level management
D.    Financial management

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?

A.    Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B.    Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C.    Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the
service designs that are produced
D.    Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?

A.    Outcome
B.    Incident
C.    Change
D.    Problem

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?

A.    Change management
B.    Service portfolio management
C.    Supplier management
D.    Continual service improvement

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?

1. Local service desk
2. Virtual service desk
3. IT help desk
4. Follow the sun

A.    1, 2 and 4 only
B.    2, 3 and 4 only
C.    1, 3 and 4 only
D.    1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?

A.    Informational, scheduled, normal
B.    Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C.    Informational, warning, exception
D.    Warning, reactive, proactive

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?

A.    Employers
B.    Stakeholders
C.    Regulators
D.    Accreditors

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
You are a system administrator responsible for maintaining Microsoft Dynamics 365 at your company.
Management wants a new application built that allows them to manage requests for vendors.
You need to use the app designer to build the new application on Microsoft Dynamics 365.
What are three items that can be configured in the app designer? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    a site map for the new app
B.    a business rule for the new app
C.    a role to be used by the new app
D.    a dashboard for the new app
E.    a workflow for the new app

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
You are a system administrator for a Microsoft Dynamics 365 and Microsoft SharePoint online environment.
You need to prevent a user from accessing Microsoft SharePoint while in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
What should you do?

A.    Change the security settings for SharePoint Site on the users security role.
B.    Change the security settings for Document Generation on the user’s security role.
C.    Change the security settings for Enable or Disable User on the user’s security role.
D.    Change the security settings for Document Template on the user’s security role.

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In which scenario is the Import Data Wizard method recommended for Microsoft Dynamics 365?

A.    a large company with data on-premises that currently uses Microsoft Dynamics AX and has it staged in Microsoft Azure
B.    a small company that currently uses Microsoft Dynamics 365, Business edition and wants to migrate to Enterprise edition
C.    a large company with Customer Relationship Management (CRM) application data that is stored on the same data center as Microsoft Dynamics 365
D.    a small company with data on-premises that has never used a Customer Relationship Management (CRM) application

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-US/dynamics/crm-customer-center/import-accounts-leads-or-other-data.aspx

QUESTION 4
You are the technology director for a large company that plans to implement Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You are researching the type of licensing that is required for Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Which Microsoft Dynamics 365 App is only available with Microsoft Dynamics 365 Plan 2?

A.    Customer Service
B.    Operations
C.    Sales
D.    Field Service

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/pricing

QUESTION 5
You need to deploy a new instance, which will be used to conduct training for users for an indefinite period.
You need to be able to deploy full copies of the production environment into this new.
What should you do?

A.    Create a production instance in a new tenant
B.    Create a trial in a new tenant
C.    Create a production instance in the same tenant.
D.    Create a sandbox instance in the same tenant.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn722373.aspx

QUESTION 6
You are a system administrator for an organization with a Microsoft Dynamics 365 deployment (hosted in a European data center) and Active Directory Federated Services on-premises. Your organization acquires a new company in the US that is using Microsoft Dynamics 365 Online in its own tenant.
The US company can continue to use their Microsoft Dynamics 365 Online instance as is.
All users need to be on the European Active Directory, but they need to use an instance close to them.
What should you do?

A.    Migrate the US instance to the European tenant, and set the instance the US region.
B.    Keep the US tenant and federate Active Directory with both the US and European teanants.
C.    Keep the US tenant, and federate Active Directory with only the European tenant.
D.    Migrate the US instance to the European tenant, and set the instance to the European region.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You are a system administrator.
Microsoft schedules an update for your instance of Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Which two scenarios will occur? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    If you have not approved the update before the scheduled date, the instance will become inactive until approved or rescheduled.
B.    If you have approved the update, the instance will update on the scheduled date.
C.    The instance will update on the scheduled date, regardless of approval.
D.    If you have not approved the update, the instance will not update on the scheduled date.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn308237.aspx

QUESTION 8
You are an administrator for an organization that uses Microsoft Dynamics 365 and Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook.
Your users have varying requirements for which data they need to take offline.
You need to ensure that your users have access to the correct data offline.
What should you do?

A.    Instruct users on how to configure the offline filter.
B.    Instruct users on how to configure the synchronization filters.
C.    Create one set of offline filters and distribute those.
D.    Instruct users on how to configure the synchronized fields.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics/crm-customer-center/choose-records-to-work-with-offline-in-dynamics-365-for-outlook.aspx

QUESTION 9
You are in the initial planning phase of a Microsoft Dynamics 365 implementation. The customer wants to use the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook.
The customer is about to make a decision on whether Microsoft Exchange and Microsoft Dynamics 365 should be on-premises, online, or a hybrid.
You need to advise the customer on how their decision affects their ability to use the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook,
What should you tell them?

A.    The Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook is online only, so both Microsoft Exchange and Microsoft Dynamics 365 must be online.
B.    The Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook requires Microsoft Exchange to be online, but Microsoft Dynamics 365 can be on-premises.
C.    The Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook requires Microsoft Dynamics 365 to be online, but Microsoft Exchange can be on-premises.
D.    The Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook supports both online-to-online, on-premises to on-premises, and hybrid environments.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn946901.aspx

QUESTION 10
You are a deployment manager for Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Your company decides to implement Microsoft OneNote, and you need to integrate it to Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Which two steps should you take to perform this integration? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Turn on Microsoft OneNote integration.
B.    Turn on Microsoft OneDrive for Business integration.
C.    Turn on Microsoft Office 365 Groups integration.
D.    Turn on server-based Microsoft SharePoint integration.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics/crm-customer-center/set-up-onenote-integration-in-dynamics-365.aspx

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QUESTION 1
What information is included in the DHCP snooping database? (Choose two.)

A.    client MAC address
B.    DHCP server address
C.    DHCP options
D.    VLAN

Answer: AD
Explanation:
When DHCP snooping is enabled, the lease information from the server is used to create the DHCP snooping table, also known as the binding table.
The table shows current IP-MAC bindings, as well as lease time, type of binding, names of associated VLANs, and associated interface.
http://www.juniper.net/techpubs/en_US/junos13.2/topics/concept/port-security-dhcp-snooping-els.html

QUESTION 2
Which three statements are correct about the voice VLAN feature? (Choose three.)

A.    It allows the access port to accept tagged voice and untagged data packets.
B.    It allows you to apply independent CoS actions to data and voice packets.
C.    It can be used with LLDP-MED to dynamically assign the VLAN ID value to IP phones.
D.    It allows trunk ports to accept tagged voice and untagged data packets.
E.    It must use the same VLAN ID as data traffic on a defined interface.

Answer: ABC
Explanation:
A (not D): The Voice VLAN feature in EX-series switches enables access ports to accept both data (untagged) and voice (tagged) traffic and separate that traffic into different VLANs.
B: To assign differentiated priority to Voice traffic, it is recommended that class of service (CoS) is configured prior to enabling the voice VLAN feature. Typically, voice traffic is treated with a higher priority than common user traffic. Without differentiated treatment through CoS, all traffic, regardless of the type, is subject to the same delay during times of congestion.
C: In conjunction with Voice VLAN, you can utilize Link Layer Discovery Protocol Media Endpoint Discovery (LLDP-MED) to provide the voice VLAN ID and 802.1p values to the attached IP phones. This dynamic method associates each IP phone with the appropriate voice VLAN and assigns the necessary802.1p values, which are used by CoS, to differentiate service for voice traffic within a network.
https://kb.juniper.net/InfoCenter/index?page=content&id=KB11062&actp=search

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are correct about aggregate routes in the Junos OS? (Choose two.)

A.    An active route can contribute only to a single aggregate route.
B.    Only one aggregate route can be configured for each destination prefix.
C.    An aggregate route has a default next hop of an IP address.
D.    An aggregate route always shows as active in the routing table.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
A route can contribute only to a single aggregate route.
You can configure only one aggregate route for each destination prefix.

QUESTION 4
Which device is used to separate collision domains?

A.    switch
B.    router
C.    hub
D.    firewall

Answer: A
Explanation:
Modern wired networks use a network switch to reduce or eliminate collisions.
By connecting each device directly to a port on the switch, either each port on a switch becomes its own collision domain (in the case of half duplex links) or the possibility of collisions is eliminated entirely in the case of full duplex links.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Collision_domain

QUESTION 5
What are two types of IS-IS PDUs? (Choose two.)

A.    open PDU
B.    VRF PDU
C.    hello PDU
D.    link-state PDU

Answer: CD
Explanation:
IS-IS hello (IIH) PDUs broadcast to discover the identity of neighboring IS-IS systems and to determine whether the neighbors are Level 1 or Level 2 intermediate systems. Link-state PDUs contain information about the state of adjacencies to neighboring IS-IS systems.
http://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos15.1/topics/concept/is-is-routing-overview.html

QUESTION 6
What are three extended BGP communities? (Choose three.)

A.    Origin: 172.16.100.100:100
B.    domain-id: 192.168.1.1:555
C.    extend:454:350
D.    172.16.90.100:888
E.    target:65000:65000

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
The BGP extended communities attribute format has three fields:
type: administrator: assigned-number. type is the type of extended community and can be either the 16-bit numerical identifier of a specific BGP extended community or one of these types: origin– Identifies where the route originated.
domain-id– Identifies the OSPF domain from which the route originated.
target– Identifies the destination to which the route is going.
bandwidth– Sets up the bandwidth extended community. Specifying link bandwidth allows you to distribute traffic unequally among different BGP paths.
rt-import– Identifies the route to install in the routing table.
src -as– Identifies the AS from which the route originated.
You must specify an AS number, not an IP address.
https://www.juniper.net/techpubs/en_US/junos12.3/topics/usage-guidelines/policy-defining-bgp-communities-and-extended-communities-for-use-in-routing-policy-match-conditions.html

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true about DIS elections in IS-IS? (Choose two.)

A.    If a priority tie occurs, the router with the lower subnetwork point of attachment (SNPA) value becomes the DIS.
B.    If a priority tie occurs, the router with the higher subnetwork point of attachment (SNPA) value becomes the DIS.
C.    The router with the lower priority value becomes the DIS.
D.    The router with the higher priority value becomes the DIS.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
In IS-IS, deterministic DIS election makes the possibility of predicting the router that will be elected as DIS from the same set of routers.
The router advertising the numerically highest priority wins, with numerically highest MAC address, also called a Subnetwork Point of Attachment (SNPA), breaking the tie.
https://kb.juniper.net/kb/documents/public/junos/StudyGuides/Ch4_from_JNCIP_studyguide.pdf

QUESTION 8
Host-1 was recently added in the network and is attached to ge-0/0/10 on Switch-A.
Host-1 is powered on and has its interface configured with default Layer 2 settings and an IP address on the 172.17.12.0/24 IP subnet.
Host-1’s MAC address is not shown in Switch-A’s bridging table.
What are three explanations for this state? (Choose three.)

A.    The ge-0/0/10 interface is configured as an access port.
B.    The ge-0/0/10 interface is not operationally or administratively up.
C.    The ge-0/0/10 interface does not have an associated IRB.
D.    The ge-0/0/10 interface has not received any traffic from Host-1.
E.    The ge-0/0/10 interface is configured as a trunk port.

Answer: BCD
Explanation:
B: MAC learning messages received with errors include:
Interface down–The MAC address is learned on an interface that is down.
C: To configure the MAC address of an IRB interface Etc.
http://www.juniper.net/techpubs/en_US/junos15.1/topics/reference/command-summary/show-ethernet-switching-statistics-mac-learning-ex-series.html
https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos16.1/topics/example/example-configuring-mac-address-of-an-irb-interface.html

QUESTION 9
Router-1 and Router-2 need to connect through the Internet using a tunneling technology.
Hosts that are connected to Router-1 and Router-2 will be sending traffic up to 1500 bytes.
The maximum segment size is supported across the path is 1520 bytes.
Which tunneling technology will allow this communication to take place?

A.    GRE tunnel
B.    IPsec VPN transport mode
C.    IPsec VPN tunnel mode
D.    IP-IP tunnel

Answer: D
Explanation:
Difference Between GRE and IP-IP Tunnel. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) and IP-in-IP (IPIP) are two rather similar tunneling mechanisms which are often confused. In terms of less overhead, the GRE header is 24 bytes and an IP header is 20 bytes.

QUESTION 10
What are two interarea OSPF LSA types? (Choose two.)

A.    Type-4 ASBR summary LSAs
B.    Type 3 summary LSAs
C.    Type 1 router LSAs
D.    Type 2 network LSAs

Answer: AB

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QUESTION 1
A process owner has been identified with an “I” in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following would be expected of them?

A.    Be accountable for the outcome of an activity
B.    Perform an activity
C.    Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity
D.    Manage an activity

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following are objectives of service level management?

1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of FT services to be provided
2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
4: Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in

A.    1, 2 and 3 only
B.    1 and 2 only
C.    1, 2 and 4 only
D.    All of the above

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?

A.    Components
B.    Processes
C.    The end-to-end service
D.    Customer satisfaction

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?

A.    Capacity management
B.    Incident management
C.    Service level management
D.    Financial management

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?

A.    Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B.    Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C.    Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the
service designs that are produced
D.    Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?

A.    Outcome
B.    Incident
C.    Change
D.    Problem

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?

A.    Change management
B.    Service portfolio management
C.    Supplier management
D.    Continual service improvement

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?

1. Local service desk
2. Virtual service desk
3. IT help desk
4. Follow the sun

A.    1, 2 and 4 only
B.    2, 3 and 4 only
C.    1, 3 and 4 only
D.    1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?

A.    Informational, scheduled, normal
B.    Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C.    Informational, warning, exception
D.    Warning, reactive, proactive

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?

A.    Employers
B.    Stakeholders
C.    Regulators
D.    Accreditors

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which three options are considered Cloud deployment models? (Choose three.)

A.    Public Cloud
B.    Hybrid Cloud
C.    Open Cloud
D.    Private Cloud
E.    Stack Cloud
F.    Distributed Cloud

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2
Company ABC hosts all their applications internally. During one day of the month, the demand for their applications far exceeds the capacity of their datacenter. Which Cloud model should Company ABC consider using?

A.    Community
B.    Private
C.    Hybrid
D.    Public

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which API structure does Cisco UCS Manager support?

A.    JSON
B.    XML
C.    RUBY
D.    PERL

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which API structure does Cisco UCS Manager support?

A.    JSON
B.    XML
C.    RUBY
D.    PERL

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which option is used to manage Multi-Domain Cisco UCS?

A.    Cisco UCS Manager
B.    Cisco UCS Central
C.    Cisco UCS B-Series
D.    Cisco UCS C-Series

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which administrative task is most disruptive to a Cisco UCS B-Series cluster?

A.    reboot of a Fabric Interconnect
B.    changing the switching mode of a Fabric Interconnect
C.    re-seating a server
D.    resetting an IOM

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which option contains server hardware identifiers, firmware, state, configuration, and connectivity characteristics?

A.    pools
B.    policies
C.    service profiles
D.    resource groups

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What are the key features of UCS?

A.    10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, flexible IO options
B.    Gigabit network , virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, flexible IO options
C.    10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization hardware, unified management, service profiles, performance IO options
D.    10 Gigabit unified network fabric, virtualization optimization, unified management, service profiles, performance IO options

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which option is the correct steps to regenerate a UCS B-Series SSL certificate?

A.    Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP
# scope security
# scope keyring default
# set regenerate yes
# commit-buffer
B.    Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP
# scope certificate
# set regenerate yes
# commit-buffer
C.    Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP
# scope security
# scope certificate
# set regenerate yes
# commit-buffer
D.    Using the UCSM GUI
Navigate to the Admin tab
Expand ALL > Key Management
Right-click Key Management and choose regenerate certificate Click OK

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which of the following most accurately describes the default role of Server Equipment Administrator in UCSM?

A.    Read and write access to physical server related operations. Read access to the rest of the system.
B.    Read and write access to logical and physical server related operations. Read and write access to the rest of the system.
C.    Read and write access to logical and physical server related operations. Read access to the rest of the system.
D.    Read and write access to physical server related operations. Read and write access to the rest of the system.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which option can be addressed when using retrospective security techniques?

A.    if the affected host needs a software update
B.    how the malware entered our network
C.    why the malware is still in our network
D.    if the affected system needs replacement

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which CVSSv3 Attack Vector metric value requires the attacker to physically touch or manipulate the vulnerable component?

A.    local
B.    physical
C.    network
D.    adjacent

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which option is a misuse variety per VERIS enumerations?

A.    snooping
B.    hacking
C.    theft
D.    assault

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
In the context of incident handling phases, which two activities fall under scoping? (Choose two.)

A.    determining the number of attackers that are associated with a security incident
B.    ascertaining the number and types of vulnerabilities on your network
C.    identifying the extent that a security incident is impacting protected resources on the network
D.    determining what and how much data may have been affected
E.    identifying the attackers that are associated with a security incident

Answer: DE

QUESTION 5
Which regular expression matches “color” and “colour”?

A.    col[0-9]+our
B.    colo?ur
C.    colou?r
D.    ]a-z]{7}

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which kind of evidence can be considered most reliable to arrive at an analytical assertion?

A.    direct
B.    corroborative
C.    indirect
D.    circumstantial
E.    textual

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You see 100 HTTP GET and POST requests for various pages on one of your webservers. The user agent in the requests contain php code that, if executed, creates and writes to a new php file on the webserver. Which category does this event fall under as defined in the Diamond Model of Intrusion?

A.    delivery
B.    reconnaissance
C.    action on objectives
D.    installation
E.    exploitation

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which string matches the regular expression r(ege)+x?

A.    rx
B.    regeegex
C.    r(ege)x
D.    rege+x

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which statement about threat actors is true?

A.    They are any company assets that are threatened.
B.    They are any assets that are threatened.
C.    They are perpetrators of attacks.
D.    They are victims of attacks.

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which data element must be protected with regards to PCI?

A.    past health condition
B.    geographic location
C.    full name
D.    recent payment amount

Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which definition of a process in Windows is true?

A.    running program
B.    unit of execution that must be manually scheduled by the application
C.    database that stores low-level settings for the OS and for certain applications
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QUESTION 1
A router’s static route is set by the:

A.    Adjacent network
B.    Next upstream router
C.    Network administrator
D.    Routing protocol

Answer: C
Explanation:
Static routing is a form of routing that occurs when a router uses a manually-configured routing entry, rather than information from a dynamic routing protocol to forward traffic.

QUESTION 2
Which setting is used to determine the Domain Name System (DNS) settings on a client computer?

A.    TELNET
B.    NSLOOKUP
C.    PATHPING
D.    NETSTAT

Answer: B
Explanation:
nslookup is a network administration command-line tool available for many computer operating systems for querying the Domain Name System (DNS) to obtain domain name or IP address mapping or for any other specific DNS record.

QUESTION 3
The host name of the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) mail.exchange.corp.nwtraders.com is:

A.    corp
B.    com
C.    nwtraders
D.    exchange
E.    mail

Answer: E
Explanation:
Hostnames are composed of series of labels concatenated with dots, as are all domain names. For example, let’s break mail.google.com into its component parts: mail is the host or local hostname; and google.com is the domain or parent domain name.

QUESTION 4
To which IP configuration does the CIDR notation 192.168.1.1/25 refer?

A.    192.168.1.1 255.255.255.64
B.    192.168.1.1 255.255.255.1
C.    192.168.1.1 255.255.255.32
D.    192.168.1.1 255.255.255.256
E.    192.168.1.1 255.255.255.128

Answer: E

QUESTION 5
Which command is used to verify that a server is connected to the network?

A.    IPCONFIG
B.    ROUTE
C.    PING
D.    CHECK

Answer: C
Explanation:
Ping is a computer network administration software utility used to test the reachability of a host on an Internet Protocol (IP) network and to measure the round-trip time for messages sent from the originating host to a destination computer.

QUESTION 6
Which of these represents the Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) loopback address?

A.    127.0.0.1
B.    192.168.0.1
C.    FEC0:A8C0::AA01
D.    ::1

Answer: D
Explanation:
The localhost (loopback) address, 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1, and the IPv6 unspecified address, 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0, are reduced to ::1 and ::, respectively.

QUESTION 7
Which of these addresses is a multicast address?

A.    127.0.0.1
B.    169.254.0.1
C.    192.168.0.1
D.    224.0.0.1

Answer: D
Explanation:
The full range of multicast addresses is from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255.

QUESTION 8
Which of the following uses pointer records and A records?

A.    IDS
B.    DNS Server
C.    NAT Server
D.    IPS

Answer: B
Explanation:
DNS records include:
* A
Address record
* PTR
Pointer record

QUESTION 9
The ipconfig command will:

A.    Configure routers
B.    Display a client’s address
C.    Display a client’s broadcast mode
D.    Configure DHCP clients

Answer: B
Explanation:
Displays all current TCP/IP network configuration values and refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Used without parameters, ipconfig displays the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway for all adapters.

QUESTION 10
One reason to incorporate VLANs in a network is to:

A.    Increase the number of available IP addresses.
B.    Increase the number of available Media Access Control (MAC) addresses.
C.    Reduce the number of broadcast domains.
D.    Reduce the number of nodes in a broadcast domain.

Answer: D
Explanation:
VLANs provide the following advantages:
* VLANs enable logical grouping of end-stations that are physically dispersed on a network. …
* VLANs reduce the need to have routers deployed on a network to contain broadcast traffic. …
* Confinement of broadcast domains on a network significantly reduces traffic.
By confining the broadcast domains, end-stations on a VLAN are prevented from listening to or receiving broadcasts not intended for them. Moreover, if a router is not connected between the VLANs, the end- stations of a VLAN cannot communicate with the end-stations of the other VLANs.

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QUESTION 1
You need to assign permissions to access resources.
Which type of group should you use?

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QUESTION 1
Note: This question is a part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your company has 1,000 users in a Microsoft Office 365 subscription. A Power BI administrator named Admin1 creates 20 dashboards and shares them with 50 users.
You discover that a use name User1 can access all the dashboards. You need to prevent User1 from accessing all the dashboards.

Solution: From the properties of each dashboard, you modify the Share settings.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-admin-administering-power-bi-in-your-organization#how-do-i-remove-power-bi-for-users-that-already-signed-up

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is a part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your company has 1,000 users in a Microsoft Office 365 subscription. A Power BI administrator named Admin1 creates 20 dashboards and shares them with 50 users.
You discover that a use name User1 can access all the dashboards. You need to prevent User1 from accessing all the dashboards.

Solution: From the Power BI Admin portal, you modify the Dashboard settings.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-admin-administering-power-bi-in-your-organization#how-do-i-remove-power-bi-for-users-that-already-signed-up

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is a part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your company has 1,000 users in a Microsoft Office 365 subscription. A Power BI administrator named Admin1 creates 20 dashboards and shares them with 50 users.
You discover that a use name User1 can access all the dashboards. You need to prevent User1 from accessing all the dashboards.

Solution: From Microsoft Azure Active Directory, you remove the Power BI license from User1.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-admin-administering-power-bi-in-your-organization#how-do-i-remove-power-bi-for-users-that-already-signed-up

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is a part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You have a Power BI model that contains two tables named Sales and Date. Sales contains four columns named TotalCost, DueDate, ShipDate, and OrderDate. Date contains two columns named Date and Time.
The tables have the following relationships:

Sales [DueDate] and Date [Date]
Sales [ShipDate] and Date [Date]
Sales [OrderDate] and Date [Date]

The active relationship is on Sales [DueDate].
You need to create measures to count the number of orders by [ShipDate] and orders by [OrderDate].
You must meet the goal without loading any additional data.

Solution: You create a calculated table. You create a measure that uses the new table.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is a part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You have a Power BI model that contains two tables named Sales and Date. Sales contains four columns named TotalCost, DueDate, ShipDate, and OrderDate. Date contains two columns named Date and Time.
The tables have the following relationships:

Sales [DueDate] and Date [Date]
Sales [ShipDate] and Date [Date]
Sales [OrderDate] and Date [Date]

The active relationship is on Sales [DueDate].
You need to create measures to count the number of orders by [ShipDate] and orders by [OrderDate].
You must meet the goal without loading any additional data.

Solution: You create two copies of the Date table named ShipDate and OrderDateGet. You create a measure that uses the new tables.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is a part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You have a Power BI model that contains two tables named Sales and Date. Sales contains four columns named TotalCost, DueDate, ShipDate, and OrderDate. Date contains two columns named Date and Time.
The tables have the following relationships:

Sales [DueDate] and Date [Date]
Sales [ShipDate] and Date [Date]
Sales [OrderDate] and Date [Date]

The active relationship is on Sales [DueDate].
You need to create measures to count the number of orders by [ShipDate] and orders by [OrderDate].
You must meet the goal without loading any additional data.

Solution: You create measures that use the CALCULATE, COUNT, and FILTER DAX functions.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee634966.aspx
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee634825.aspx
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee634791.aspx

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is a part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You have a query for a table named Sales. Sales has a column named CustomerID. The Data type of CustomerID is Whole Number.

You refresh the data and find several errors. You discover that new entries in the Sales table contain nonnumeric values.
You need to ensure that nonnumeric values in the CustomerID column are set to 0.

Solution: From Query Editor, select the CustomerID column and click Remove Errors.
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is a part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You have a query for a table named Sales. Sales has a column named CustomerID. The Data type of CustomerID is Whole Number.
You refresh the data and find several errors. You discover that new entries in the Sales table contain nonnumeric values.
You need to ensure that nonnumeric values in the CustomerID column are set to 0.

Solution: From Query Editor, select the CustomerID column and click Replace Values…
Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

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QUESTION 21
You are building a Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services multidimensional model over a SQL Server database.
In a cube named OrderAnalysis, there is a standard cube dimension named Stock Item.
This dimension has the following attributes:
Users report that the attributes Stock Item Key and Photo are distracting and are not providing any value.
They have asked for the attributes to be removed. However, these attributes are needed by other cubes.
You need to hide the specified attributes from the end users of the OrderAnalysis cube. You do not want to change the structure of the dimension.
Which change should you make to the properties for the Stock Item Key and Photo attributes?

A.    Set the AttributeHierarchyVisible property to False.
B.    Set the AttributeHierarchyEnabledproperty to False.
C.    Set the AttributeVisibility property to Hidden.
D.    Set the Usage property to Regular.
E.    Set the AttributeHierarchyDisplayFolder property to Hidden.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The value of the AttributeHierarchyEnabled property determines whether an attribute hierarchy is created. If this property is set to False, the attribute hierarchy is not created and the attribute cannot be used as a level in a user hierarchy; the attribute hierarchy exists as a member property only. However, a disabled attribute hierarchy can still be used to order the members of another attribute. If the value of the AttributeHierarchyEnabled property is set to True, the value of the AttributeHierarchyVisible property determines whether the attribute hierarchy is visible independent of its use in a user-defined hierarchy.
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms166717(v=sql.110).aspx

QUESTION 22
You are optimizing a Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) multidimensional model over a SQL Server database.
You have a table named City which has several dimensions that do not contain a space in their names.
One dimension is named SalesTerritory rather than Sales Territory.
You need to ensure that Report developers can drag the attribute name to the report rather than having to re-label the attributes by implementing spaces.
You must minimize administrative effort and not break any upstream processes.
What should you do?

A.    In the SQL Server database, run the system procedure sp_rename to rename the columns in the base tables with the target name.
B.    In SQL Server Management Studio, navigate to the City table, expand the columns, press F2, and rename the columns in the base tables.
C.    In the SQL Server database, implement a SYNONYM.
D.    In the SQL Server database, implement a view over the City table that aliases the columns in the tables.

Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

You administer a Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) tabular model for a travel agency that specializes in vacation packages. Vacation bookings and packages are stored in a SQL Server database. You use the model as the basis for customer emails that highlight vacation packages that are currently underbooked, or projected to be underbooked.
The company plans to incorporate cruise ship vacation packages. Cruise ship vacation packages include new features such as region availability and cruise line specialties that require changes to the tabular model.
You must ensure that the tabular model reflects the new vacation packages.
You need to configure the tabular data model.
What should you do?

A.    Ensure that DirectQuery is enabled for the model.
B.    Ensure that DirectQuery is disabled for the model.
C.    Ensure that the Transactional Deployment property is set to True.
D.    Ensure that the Transactional Deployment property is set to False.
E.    Process the model in Process Full mode.
F.    Process the model in Process Data mode.
G.    Process the model in Process Defrag mode.

Answer: E
Explanation:
Process Full processes an Analysis Services object and all the objects that it contains. When Process Full is executed against an object that has already been processed, Analysis Services drops all data in the object, and then processes the object. This kind of processing is required when a structural change has been made to an object, for example, when an attribute hierarchy is added, deleted, or renamed.

QUESTION 24
Hotspot Question
A company has a multidimensional cube that is used for analyzing sales data.
You add a new measure named Transaction ?Total Including Tax and include the Supplier, Payment Method, and Transaction Type dimensions in the data model. The Transaction ?Total Including Tax measure uses the existing Customer and Date dimensions.
When users have queried the new measure in the past, they saw results as shown in the existing query output exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

241

The overall total is incorrectly displayed on every row. In addition, the results are no longer formatted correctly.
The query result should appear as shown in the desired query output exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

242

You need to ensure the table is displayed correctly.
What should you do? Use drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

243
Answer:

244
Explanation:
Box 1: Enter a custom MeasureExpression property on the measure
Calculated measures use MDX expressions to supply their values, instead of binding to columns in a data source. The Expression property contains the MDX expression used to supply the values for a Measure only if the Measure is a calculated measure. Otherwise, this property contains an empty string (“”).

QUESTION 25
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

You have a Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) instance that is configured to use multidimensional mode. You create the following cube:

251

Users need to be able to analyze sales by product and color.
You need to create the dimension.
Which relationship type should you use between the InternetSales table and the new dimension?

A.    no relationship
B.    regular
C.    fact
D.    referenced
E.    many-to-many
F.    data mining

Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Hotspot Question

You are a database administrator in a company that uses Microsoft SharePoint Server for all intranet sites. You are responsible for the installation of new database server instances.
You must install Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Server (SSAS) to support deployment of the following projects. You develop both projects by using SQL Server Data Tools.
You need to install the appropriate services to support both projects.
What should you do? In the table below, select the appropriate services for each project. NOTE: Make only one selection in each column. Each correct selection is worth one point.

261
Answer:

262
Explanation:
Project1:
Project2: Multidimensional
Note: Analysis Services can be installed in one of three server modes: Multidimensional and Data Mining (default), Power Pivot for SharePoint, and Tabular.

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QUESTION 1
You are reviewing the design of a customer dimension table in an existing data warehouse hosted on SQL Azure.
The current dimension design does not allow the retention of historical changes to customer attributes such as Postcode.
You need to redesign the dimension to enable the full historical reporting of changes to multiple customer attributes including Postcode.
What should you do?

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QUESTION 1
Which three statements about FCoE are true? (Choose three.)

A.    Allows Fibre Channel and Ethernet networks to share a single, integrated infrastructure.
B.    Encapsulates Fibre Channel frames into Ethernet frames, which allows them to run alongside traditional IP traffic.
C.    Increases capital costs due to the difficulty to manage.
D.    Consolidates I/O traffic in the data center.

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2
Which cable is used to access the command-line interface of a Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects?

A.    KVM cable
B.    console cable
C.    Ethernet cable
D.    SFP+ Ethernet transceiver cable

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Where do you find the model number of a Cisco MDS 9200 Series chassis?

A.    on the top front of the chassis next to the serial number
B.    on the bottom front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
C.    on the top front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
D.    on the bottom front of the chassis next to the serial number

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
How do you find the serial number of a Cisco UCS 5108 Blade Server chassis?

A.    Use the Cisco UCS Admin.
B.    Use the Cisco UCS Application.
C.    Use the Cisco UCS Assistant.
D.    Use the Cisco UCS Manager.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What does the system status LED look like when an over temperature or major alarm occurs on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnect?

A.    Amber
B.    Red
C.    Blinking amber
D.    Blinking red

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Which item does F represent?

61

A.    HDD 1
B.    TFP Module
C.    SuperCap Module
D.    CPU 2
E.    CMOS Battery

Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly identifies the front panel LEDs on the Cisco UCS C220 Server?

71

A.    A is power button and power status LED;
B is identification button and LED;
C is system status LED;
D is network link activity LED.
B.    A is network link activity LED;
B is system status LED;
C is power button and power status LED;
D is identification button and LED.
C.    A is system status LED;
B is network link activity LED;
C is power button and power status LED;
D is identification button and LED.
D.    A is network link activity LED;
B is system status LED;
C is identification button and LED;
D is power button and power status LED.

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which processor option is supported in the Cisco UCS C420 M3 Server?

A.    up to two Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
B.    up to two Intel Xeon E7-4800 series multicore processors
C.    up to four Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
D.    two or four Intel Xeon E7-8800 series multicore processors

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which two major components does a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch have? (Choose two.)

A.    Virtual Fiber Channel Module
B.    Virtual Ethernet Module
C.    Virtual Supervisor Module
D.    Virtual Memory Controller Module
E.    Virtual Network Module

Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports?

A.    Cisco Nexus 5548P
B.    Cisco Nexus 5548UP
C.    Cisco Nexus 5596UP
D.    Cisco Nexus 5596T

Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Given:

11

Which option enables the code to compile?

12

A.    Option A
B.    Option B
C.    Option C
D.    Option D

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Given the code fragment:

21

What is the result?

A.    [Robb, Rick, Bran]
B.    [Robb, Rick]
C.    [Robb, Bran, Rick, Bran]
D.    An exception is thrown at runtime.

Answer: A
Explanation:
After adding elements to names we have a list with four elements and element “Bran” repeated.
After removing element “Bran” we have a list with three elements [Robb, Rick, Bran].
remove method removes the first occurrence of the specified element from this list, if it is present. If the list does not contain the element, it is unchanged.
https://docs.oracle.com/javase/8/docs/api/java/util/ArrayList.html#remove-java.lang.Object-

QUESTION 3
Given:

31

What is the result?

A.    C B A
B.    C
C.    A B C
D.    Compilation fails at line n1 and line n2

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Given:

41

What is the result?

A.    3 4 5 6
B.    3 4 3 6
C.    5 4 5 6
D.    3 6 4 6

Answer: C
Explanation:
Since variable i is static, it is shared by all instances of X. When code executes x2.i = 5, x1.i = 5 too.
Since variable j isn’t static, each instance of X has its own copy of j.

QUESTION 5
Given the code fragment:

51

Which code fragment, when inserted at line 3, enables the code to print 10:20?

A.    int[] array = new int[2];
B.    int[] array;
array = int[2];
C.    int array = new int[2];
D.    int array [2] ;

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Given the code fragment:

61

What is the result?

A.    A B C Work done
B.    A B C D Work done
C.    A Work done
D.    Compilation fails

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which three are advantages of the Java exception mechanism?

A.    Improves the program structure because the error handling code is separated from the normal program function
B.    Provides a set of standard exceptions that covers all the possible errors
C.    Improves the program structure because the programmer can choose where to handle exceptions
D.    Improves the program structure because exceptions must be handled in the method in which they occurred
E.    Allows the creation of new exceptions that are tailored to the particular program being created

Answer: ACE
Explanation:
B is false. Standard exceptions not cover all possible errors.
D is false. Exceptions don’t have to be handled in the method in which they occurred.

QUESTION 8
Given the code from the Greeting.Java file:

81

Which set of commands prints Hello Duke in the console?

82

A.    Option A
B.    Option B
C.    Option C
D.    Option D

Answer: C
Explanation:
Source code file names must have .java suffixes to compile with javac
We interpret or run the program with “java <class name without suffix> arguments”
http://docs.oracle.com/javase/8/docs/technotes/tools/windows/javac.html
http://docs.oracle.com/javase/8/docs/technotes/tools/windows/java.html

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QUESTION 1
View the exhibit and examine the structure of the PRODUCTS table.

11

The PRODUCTS table contains 20 rows.
In the data that has been entered, the PROD_ID column contains only single digit values, PROD_NAMKhas a maximum of 5 characters, and RATE has 4 digit values for all rows.
Which two statements are true regarding the modifications that can be performed to the structure of the PRODUCTS table? (Choose two.)

A.    PROD_NAME size can be reduced from 10 to 5 characters.
B.    PROD_IP can be changed from CHAR to NUMBER data type.
C.    Now columns can be added only if they have NOT NULL constraint.
D.    PROD_RATE size can be changed from NUMBER (4) to NUMBER (6, 2).
E.    None of the existing columns can be dropped because they contain data.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
Your database instance is running. A user, SCOTT, starts a SQL*Plus session, and issues the following query;

SQL>SELECT *
FROM sales:

Which process would retrieve the result from the database and return it to the client program?

A.    user process
B.    server process
C.    System Monitor (SMON)
D.    Process Monitor (PMON)
E.    Checkpoint process (CKPT)

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true regarding Oracle Net? (Choose two.)

A.    It must reside only on the client for traditional client/server applications.
B.    It must reside only on the database server for web-based applications.
C.    It must reside on both the web server and database server for web-based applications.
D.    It must reside on both the client and database server for traditional client/server applications.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
You have some operatingsystem scripts on one server that need to run in response to certain changes in data in your Oracle Database.
The mostefficient way to implement this with Oracle Database 11g would be:

A.    Write a PL/SQL routine that connects to the remote server and calls the script.
B.    Create a script on the database server to perform the remote action and thatscript from adatabase trigger.
C.    Modify the script on the remote server to periodically chock for these data change in your Oracle database.
D.    Install an Oracle Scheduler Agent on the remote server and create job to be called from Oracle scheduler in response to a database server event.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
View the exhibit. You are creating a database by using Database Configuration Assistant (DHCIA). You have chosen the File System option as the storage mechanism.
What would be the result of choosing this option?

51

A.    Disk mirroring and striping would be done automatically.
B.    The database files would be managed by the operating system’s file system.
C.    DBCA would not save the database files by using Optimal File Architecture (OFA).
D.    The data files are automatically spread across all available storage devices to optimize performance and resource utilization.

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
View the exhibit. You plan to load the customer information that has been brought from a non Oracle database in the CUSTOMERS table in your database using the “Enterprise Manager Load Data From User File” option.
Which files should you create before using this option?

61

A.    only data file
B.    data file and log file
C.    data file and dump file
D.    data file and control file

Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true regarding the use of SQL in Oracle database? (Choose two)

A.    SQL is used to control access to the database and its objects.
B.    SQL can handle the creation of variables to store temporary values in a session.
C.    SQL allows a user to specify where the data is physically stored on the storage device.
D.    SQL is used to manipulate the data in binary file large objects (LOBs) that are stored outside the database.
E.    All SQL statements automatically use the optimizing that is available as part of Oracle database to determine the most efficient means of accessing data.

Answer: AE

QUESTION 8
You issue the following command as a DBA:

SQL> SHUTDOWN

What would be the outcome of the above command?

A.    It causes the instance to abort.
B.    It waits for all sessions to disconnect.
C.    It rolls back the current transactions and disconnects a/I sessions.
D.    It waits for the current transaction in each session to complete before disconnecting the sessions.

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Enterprise Manager beacons are a feature of which 11g management pack?

A.    Provisioning and Patch Automation
B.    Database Diagnostics
C.    Configuration Management
D.    Real User Experience Insight

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What is needed to establish monitoring of SSL-encrypted HTTP traffic?

A.    Monitoring of SSL traffic is not supported by RUEI.
B.    Installation of an SSL decryption card is required in the RUEI server.
C.    A copy of the SSL key and certificate need to be uploaded to RUEI.
D.    RUEI should negotiate a private SSL key/certificate pair with each Web server.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Examine the following commands:

# groupadd project
# mkdir /usr/share/project
# chown -r root.project /usr/share/project
# qpasswd -a scott project
# qpasswd -a foo project
# chmod 2775 /usr/share/project

Based on the commands, which statement is correct?

A.    Any new file created in the /usr/share/project folder by user scott will not be possible for foo to modify it.
B.    All members of the project group need the administrator’s help to change the file permission every time users write new files in the /usr/share/project folder.
C.    Files created by all members of the project group in the /usr/share/project folder will get the same group permission as the folder itself.
D.    The chmod command can only take a tree-digit argument.

Answer: A
Explanation:
*A permission of “2755” for a directory means that everyone has read and execute permission, while the file owner and members of the file’s group additionally have write permission. And any files or subdirectories created in that directory will inherit the parent directory’s group id.
Incorrect:
Not D: chmod 2775 is a valid command.

QUESTION 2
View the exhibit.

21

Examine the grub.conf file snippet in the Exhibit. Which statement is true if your Linux system boots by using this grub.conf file?

A.    GRUB will boot, by default, the first kernel entry of this grub.conf file.
B.    GRUB will prompt you to select the kernel to be booted because the default parameter is set to 0.
C.    GRUB will boot the kernel specified in the inittab file of the system.
D.    GRUB will boot, by default, the second kernel entry of this grub.conf file.

Answer: A
Explanation:
According the grub .conf file you have got 8 seconds to choose whether to boot the first entry.Now if you want to change, and let say you want the second grub entry as booting system by default, justchange the line:default=0 bydefault=1

QUESTION 3
The DBA tells you that the system is not overloaded but you can tell that the system us actively swapping. What command would you run to show this information to the DBA?

A.    # iotop
B.    # iostat 5 10
C.    # cat /proc/meminfo
D.    # vmstat 5 10

Answer: B
Explanation:
*iostat – Report Central Processing Unit (CPU) statistics and input/output statistics for devices, partitions and network filesystems (NFS).
*The iostat command is used for monitoring system input/output device loading by observing the time the devices are active in relation to their average transfer rates. The iostat command generates reports that can be used to change system configuration to better balance the input/output load between physical disks.
Incorrect:
Not A: Related to kernel and processes.
*iotop – simple top-like I/O monitor
*iotop watches I/O usage information output by the Linux kernel (requires 2.6.20 or later) and displays a table of current I/O usage by processes or threads on the system.
*iotop displays columns for the I/O bandwidth read and written by each process/thread during the sampling period. It also displays the percentage of time the thread/process spent while swapping in and while waiting on I/O. For each process, its I/O priority (class/level) is shown. In addition, the total I/O bandwidth read and written during the sampling period is displayed at the top of the interface.
Not C: related to RAM usage.
*The entries in the /proc/meminfo can help explain what’s going on with your memory usage, if you know how to read it.
*High-Level Statistics
MemTotal: Total usable ram (i.e. physical ram minus a few reserved bits and the kernel binary code)
MemFree: Is sum of LowFree+HighFree (overall stat) MemShared: 0; is here for compat reasons but always zero. Buffers: Memory in buffer cache. mostly useless as metric nowadays Cached: Memory in the pagecache (diskcache) minus SwapCache SwapCache: Memory that once was swapped out, is swapped back in but still also is in the swapfile (if memory is needed it doesn’t need to be swapped out AGAIN because it is already in the swapfile. This saves I/O)
Not D:vmstat – Report virtual memory statistics

QUESTION 4
View the cron job example below. How often will this cron job run?

0 */ 5 * * * command

A.    every 5 minutes
B.    every 5 hours
C.    every 5 days
D.    every 5th month

Answer: B
Explanation:
Execute a cron job every 5 Hours
The second field is for hours. If you specify * in this field, it runs every hour. If you specify */5 in the 2nd field, it runs every 5 hours as shown below.
0 */5 * * * /home/ramesh/backup.sh

QUESTION 5
What happens when the following command is run?

# authconfig – – passalgo = md5 – – update

A.    It produces the MD5 checksum of the input data.
B.    It configures the MD5 checksum for newly authored documents
C.    It converts the stdio input to MD5 algorithm.
D.    It changes the user password hashing algorithm to MD5.

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Identify the two kernels that are shipped with Oracle Linux 6.

A.    Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel
B.    Unbeatable Enterprise Kernel 11g
C.    Red Hat Compatible Kernel
D.    Linux Compatible Kernel
E.    Solaris 11 Container Kernel

Answer: AC
Explanation:
Oracle Linux 6 ships with two sets of kernel packages:
*Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel [kernel-uek-2.6.32-100.28.5.el6] Only available on the x86_64 (64 bit) platform
Installed and booted by default
*Red Hat compatible Kernel [kernel-2.6.32-71.el6] Installed by default

QUESTION 7
You have to find the default run level of your Oracle Linux system.
Which file will help you find this information?

A.    /boot/grub/grub.conf
B.    /etc/inittab
C.     /etc/rc.d/rc.sysinit
D.     /etc/rc.local
E.     /etc/rc.d/init.d

Answer: B
Explanation:
The default run level is specified in the /etc/inittab file.

QUESTION 8
On your Oracle Linux 6 system, you have to configure the eth0 network interface to 100 MB/sec, half duplex without trying to autonegotiate. Which command will help you configure this requirement?

A.    # ifconfig eth0 speed 100 autoneg off duplex half
B.    # ethtool interface eth0 speed 100 autoneg off duplex half
C.    # ifconfig interface eth0 speed 100 autoneg off duplex half
D.    # ethtool -seth0speed 100 autoneg off duplex half

Answer: D
Explanation:
When I have a device that is acting up, I tend to run: ethtool ethX, check the Supported link modes, the Link partner advertised link modes and the actual speed and Duplex. If my Supported link mode is set low (say 10/Half for some reason) but my switch supports 1000baseT/Full then I’ll use ethtool -s ethX to change my ethernet settings to 1000baseT/Full. Just about anything you see from: ethtool ethX, can be changed with ethtool -S ethX. In this case you would use the following:
ethtool -S eth0 speed 1000 duplex full autoneg on

QUESTION 9
As a system administrator, you run the system-config-network tool and make changes to the configuration. You change the hostname and the DNS search path settings. Which two files will these changes be written into?

A.    “/etc/sysconfig/network” and “/etc/resolv.conf” files
B.    “/etc/sysconfig/network” and “etc/nsswitch.conf/” files
C.    “/etc/sysconfig/netconfig” and “/etc/resolv.conf” files
D.    “etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/network” and “/etc/resolv.conf” files

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which two statements are correct about the Oracle ASMLib library?

A.    Oracle ASMLib is an optional support library for the Automatic Storage Management (ASM) feature.
B.    To use ASMLib library, you have to recompile it first for the Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel.
C.    Oracle Automatic Storage management (ASM) requires Oracle ASMLib library to function completely.
D.    Oracle ASMLib kernel driver is included in the Unbreakable Kernel.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
A (not C):ASMLib is an optional support library for the Automatic Storage Management feature of the Oracle Database.
ASMLib allows an Oracle Database using ASM more efficient and capable access to the disk groups it is using.
D (not B):The Oracle ASMLib kernel driver is now included in the Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel. No driver package needs to be installed when using this kernel.

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