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QUESTION 138
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QUESTION 266
You are the system administrator for a company. All devices run Windows 10 and use a variety of Microsoft Store for Business apps. All user reports issues updating a Windows Store app.

You need to troubleshoot the issue.

Winch three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A.    Run the SFC command.
B.    Run the repair-bde command.
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QUESTION 255
Your company uses Microsoft Office 365.

You need to ensure that users are prompted to label and classify documents while they edit documents.

Solution: You create a Microsoft Intune mobile device management (MDM) policy for mobile devices.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

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QUESTION 211
RMAN is configured to create backupset backups for your database.
You issue the command to back up the database:

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Which two statements are true about the backup performed by the command?

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B.    It backs up all the data files and deletes obsolete backups after the backup is complete.
C.    It backs up only those archived log files that are not backed up at least once.
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QUESTION 201
Which three statements are true about unplugging a pluggable database (PDB)?

A.    A PDB must be in closed state before it can be unplugged.
B.    A PDB must have been opened at least once after creation.
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QUESTION 191
Which three methods can be used to create a pluggable database (PDB) in an existing multitenant container database (CDB)?

A.    Use PDB$SEED for creating a PDB.
B.    Use the DBMS_PDB package to plug a non-CDB into an existing CDB.
C.    Clone the existing PDB.
D.    Use Enterprise Manager Database Express to create a PDB in an existing CDB.
E.    Use the DBMS_PDB package to plug a pre-Oracle 12c database into an existing CDB.

Answer: ABC
Explanation:
Use the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to create a pluggable database (PDB).
This statement enables you to perform the following tasks:
* Create a PDB by using the seed as a template
Use the create_pdb_from_seed clause to create a PDB by using the seed in the multitenant container database (CDB) as a template.
* Create a PDB by plugging an unplugged PDB or a non-CDB into a CDB Use the create_pdb_from_xml clause to plug an unplugged PDB or a non-CDB into a CDB, using an XML metadata file.
* Create a PDB by cloning an existing PDB or non-CDB
Use the create_pdb_clone clause to create a PDB by copying an existing PDB or non-CDB and then plugging the copy into the CDB.
References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/SQLRF/statements_6010.htm

QUESTION 192
You are connected to a recovery catalog and target database.
You execute the command:

RMAN> CATALOG START WITH `/disk1/backups’;

Which statement is true?

A.    Only valid data file copies, existing in the /disk1/backups directory, are cataloged.
B.    Only valid backup pieces and archived logs, existing in the /disk1/backups directory, are cataloged.
C.    It lists all data file copies, backup pieces, and achieved logs cataloged in the recovery catalog in the / directory and its subdirectories.
disk1/backups
D.    It lists and catalogs all valid data file copies, backup pieces, and archived logs that exist in all directory paths with the prefix /disk1/backups and their subdirectories.

Answer: D
Explanation:
If you have data file copies, backup pieces, or archived logs on disk, then you can catalog them in the recovery catalog with the CATALOG command.
The following command catalogs all files in all of these directories, because /disk1/backups is a prefix for the paths for all of these directories:
CATALOG START WITH ‘/disk1/backups’;
To catalog only backups in the /disk1/backups directory, the correct command is as follows:
CATALOG START WITH ‘/disk1/backups/’;
References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/BRADV/rcmcatdb.htm

QUESTION 193
A database instance uses an SPFILE. Examine the parameter:

1931

You plan to multiplex the control file to a new location, /u01/app/oracle/oradata/cdb1/disk3/ control03.ctl/.
Examine the possible steps that are in random order:

1. Shut down the database instance.
2. Issue ALTER SYSTEM SET CONTROL_FILES= `/u01/app/oracle/oradata/cdb1/disk1/ control01.ctl, /u01/app/oracle/oradata/cdb1/disk2/control02, /u01/app/oracle/ oradata/cdb1/disk3/control03.ctl’ SCOPE=SPFILE;.
3. Issue ALTER SYSTEM SET CONTROL_FILES=
`/u01/app/oracle/oradata/cdb1/disk1/control01.ctl, /u01/app/oracle/oradata/ cdb1/disk2/control02.ctl, /u01/app/oracle/oradata/cdb1/disk3/control03.ctl’;.
4. Copy the control file from the existing location to `/u01/app/oracle/oradata/cdb1/disk3/ control03.ctl’.
5. Mount the database.
6. Open the database.

Identify the required steps in the correct order to accomplish the task.

A.    3, 4
B.    2, 1, 4, 6
C.    3, 1, 4, 6
D.    1, 5, 2, 4, 6
E.    2, 6

Answer: C
Explanation:
You can create an additional control file copy for multiplexing by copying an existing control file to a new location and adding the file name to the list of control files.
Similarly, you rename an existing control file by copying the file to its new name or location, and changing the file name in the control file list. In both cases, to guarantee that control files do not change during the procedure, shut down the database before copying the control file.
To add a multiplexed copy of the current control file or to rename a control file:
1. Shut down the database.
2. Copy an existing control file to a new location, using operating system commands.
3. Edit the CONTROL_FILES parameter in the database initialization parameter file to add the new control file name, or to change the existing control filename.
4. Restart the database.

QUESTION 194
You accidentally drop the CUSTOMERS table, and then recover it by using the FLASHBACK TABLE command.

Which two statements are true about the dependent objects of the CUSTOMERS table?

A.    Only the primary key constraint created for the table is flashed back, whereas all other indexes must be retrieved separately.
B.    All the constraints defined on the table, except the referential integrity constraints, are flashed back.
C.    All the triggers associated with the table are flashed back but are disabled.
D.    Materialized views that use the CUSTOMERS table are flashed back.
E.    LOB segments associated with the CUSTOMERS table are flashed back.

Answer: BE
Explanation:
B: Oracle Database retrieves all indexes defined on the table except for bitmap join indexes, and all triggers and constraints defined on the table except for referential integrity constraints that reference other tables.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Flashback Table restores tables while automatically maintaining associated attributes such as current indexes, triggers, and constraints, and in this way enabling you to avoid finding and restoring database- specific properties.
Furthermore. indexes on table that exist currently are reverted and reflect the state of the table at the Flashback point.
C: By default, the database disables triggers on the affected table before performing a FLASHBACK TABLE operation. After the operation, the database returns the triggers to the state they were in before the operation (enabled or disabled). To keep triggers enabled during the flashback of the table, add an ENABLE TRIGGERS clause to the FLASHBACK TABLE
D: Flashback Table operations are not valid for the following type objects: tables that are part of a cluster, materialized views, Advanced Queuing (AQ) tables, static data dictionary tables, system tables, remote tables, object tables, nested tables, or individual table partitions or subpartitions.
References: Oracle Database, Backup and Recovery User’s Guide, 12 Release 2 (January 2017), page 18-11

QUESTION 195
Which three statements are true about the database instance startup after an instance failure?

A.    The RECO process recovers the uncommitted transactions at the next instance startup.
B.    Online redo log files and archived redo log files are required to complete the rollback stage of instance recovery.
C.    Uncommitted changes are rolled back to ensure transactional consistency.
D.    The SMON process coordinates the database recovery.
E.    Media recovery is required to complete the database recovery.
F.    Changes committed before the failure, which were not written to the data files, are re-applied.

Answer: ACD
Explanation:
A: Occasionally a database closes abnormally with one or more distributed transactions in doubt (neither committed nor rolled back). When you reopen the database and recovery is complete, the RECO background process automatically, immediately, and consistently resolves any in-doubt distributed transactions.
C: Crash and instance recovery involve two distinct operations: rolling forward the current, online datafiles by applying both committed and uncommitted transactions contained in online redo records, and then rolling back changes made in uncommitted transactions to their original state.
D: The SMON background process performs instance recovery, applying online redo automatically. No user intervention is required.
References:
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28318/startup.htm https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CNCPT/startup.htm

QUESTION 196
You want to migrate your Oracle 11g database as a pluggable database (PDB) in a multitenant container database (CDB).

Examine the steps required to perform the migration:

1. Use Data Pump export to perform a full transportable export on the source database with the export parameter VERSION=12.
2. Place all tablespaces in read-only mode on the source database.
3. Upgrade the source database to Oracle Database 12c.
4. Copy the dump file and data files to the desired location in the target database.
5. Create a new PDB in the target CDB.
6. Synchronize the PDB on the target CDB.
7. Use Data Pump import on the new PDB by using the full transportable import options.

Identify the required steps in the correct order.

A.    1, 5, 4, 7, and 6
B.    3, 2, 5, 1, 4, and 7
C.    2, 5, 1, 4, 7, and 6
D.    2, 1, 3, 5, 7, and 6

Answer: C
Explanation:
This example is a dumpfile-based full transportable export/import operation. In this case the metadata from the source database is exported to a dump file, and both the dump file and the tablespace data files are transferred to a new system. The steps would be as follows:
* (2) Set user tablespaces in the source database to READ ONLY.
* (5) Create a CDB on the destination system, including a PDB into which you will import the source database.
* (1) From the Oracle Database 11g Release 2 (11.2.0.3) environment, export the metadata and any data residing in administrative tablespaces from the source database using the FULL=Y and TRANSPORTABLE=ALWAYS parameters. Note that the VERSION=12 parameter is required only when exporting from an Oracle Database 11g Release 2 database.
* (4) Copy the tablespace data files from the source system to the destination system.
* (7) In the Oracle Database 12c environment, connect to the pre-created PDB and import the dump file.
References: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/upgrade/upgrading-oracle-database-wp-12c-1896123.pdf, page 11

QUESTION 197
RMAN is connected to a target database instance and an auxiliary instance. You execute the command:

1971

What is the outcome?

A.    RMAN uses the push method to transfer image copies.
B.    RMAN uses the push method to transfer backup sets.
C.    RMAN uses the pull method to restore files using backup sets.
D.    RMAN uses the pull method to restore files using image copies.

Answer: C
Explanation:
When RMAN performs active database duplication using backup sets, a connection is established with the source database and the auxiliary database. The auxiliary database then connects to the source database through Oracle Net Services and retrieves the required database files from the source database. This method of active database duplication is also to as the pull-based method.
Example:
DUPLICATE TARGET DATABASE TO dupdb
FROM ACTIVE DATABASE
PASSWORD FILE
SPFILE
NOFILENAMECHECK;
Incorrect Answers:
A, B, D: When active database duplication is performed using image copies, after RMAN establishes a connection with the source database, the source database transfers the required database files to the auxiliary database. Using image copies may require additional resources on the source database. This method is referred to as the push-based method of active database duplication.
References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/BRADV/rcmdupdb.htm

QUESTION 198
Which two can be backed up by using RMAN in a database that is in ARCHIVELOG mode?

A.    online redo log files while the database is open
B.    data files while the database is open
C.    PFILE and password file in MOUNT state
D.    data blocks in data files that have changed since the previous backup
E.    data files while the database is in NOMOUNT state

Answer: AB
Explanation:
When you run a database in ARCHIVELOG mode, you enable the archiving of the redo log.
If you keep an archived log, you can use a backup taken while the database is open and in normal system use.
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/archredo002.htm

QUESTION 199
You regularly take backups of your database using RMAN with a recovery catalog. Your database is currently open and the temp01.dbf temp file belonging to the TEMP tablespace is corrupted.

Identify two methods to recover the temp file with the least disruption to database availability.

A.    Drop the TEMP tablespace, and then re-create it with new temp files.
B.    Restart the database instance to create the temp file automatically.
C.    Take the TEMP tablespace offline, drop the missing temp file, and then create a new temp file.
D.    Add a new temp file to the TEMP tablespace with a new name, and then drop the temp file that is corrupted.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
Temp files are a special class of data files that are associated only with temporary tablespaces.
B: After restore and recovery of a whole database, when the database is open, missing temporary tablespaces that were recorded in the control file are re-created with their previous creation size, AUTOEXTEND, and MAXSIZE attributes. Only temporary tablespaces that are missing are re-created. If a temp file exists at the location recorded in the RMAN repository but has an invalid header, then RMAN does not re-create the temp file.
If the temp files were created as Oracle-managed files, then they are re-created in the current DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST location. Otherwise, they are re-created at their previous locations.
C: If a data file becomes missing or corrupted. You must take it offline before you can open the database.
References:
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/ADMIN/dfiles.htm
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/BRADV/rcmcomre.htm

QUESTION 200
You are administering a multitenant container database (CDB) that has no startup triggers and contains three pluggable databases (PDBs).

You execute the command to start up the CDB.

SQL> STARTUP

Which statement is true?

A.    CDB$ROOT, PDB$SEED, and the PDBs are opened in read-only mode.
B.    CDB$ROOT and PDB$SEED are opened in read-only mode, but the PDBs are in closed mode.
C.    CDB$ROOT is opened in read/write mode, but PDB$SEED and the PDBs are in closed mode.
D.    CDB$ROOT is opened in read/write mode, PDB$SEED in read-only mode, and the PDBs in MOUNT state.
E.    CDB$ROOT, PDB$SEED, and the PDBs are opened in read/write mode.

Answer: D
Explanation:
If neither READ WRITE nor READ ONLY is specified, a PDB will be opened in READ ONLY if a CDB to which it belongs is used as a physical standby database, otherwise the PDB will be opened READ WRITE.
Prerequisites for a PDB STARTUP
When the current container is a pluggable database (PDB), the STARTUP command can only be used if:
* The PDB is in MOUNTED mode, excluding the use of the FORCE option.
* The PDB must be in READ ONLY or READ WRITE mode to be in mounted mode.
Etc.
References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/SQPUG/ch_twelve045.htm

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QUESTION 181
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QUESTION 392
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QUESTION 249
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QUESTION 21
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QUESTION 31
Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)

311

A.    There are two broadcast domains in the network.
B.    There are four broadcast domains in the network.
C.    There are six broadcast domains in the network.
D.    There are four collision domains in the network.
E.    There are five collision domains in the network.
F.    There are seven collision domains in the network.

Answer: AF
Explanation:
Only router can break up broadcast domains so in the exhibit there are 2 broadcast domains: from e0 interface to the left is a broadcast domain and from e1 interface to the right is another broadcast domain ->.
Both router and switch can break up collision domains so there is only 1 collision domain on the left of the router (because hub doesn’t break up collision domain) and there are 6 collision domains on the right of the router (1 collision domain from e1 interface to the switch + 5 collision domains for 5 PCs in Production) ->

QUESTION 32
Which command enables RSTP on a switch?

A.    spanning-tree uplinkfast
B.    spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
C.    spanning-tree backbonefast
D.    spanning-tree mode mst

Answer: B
Explanation:
Ethernet network is a shared environment so all devices have the right to access to the medium. If more than one device transmits simultaneously, the signals collide and can not reach the destination.
If a device detects another device is sending, it will wait for a specified amount of time before attempting to transmit.
When there is no traffic detected, a device will transmit its message. While this transmission is occurring, the device continues to listen for traffic or collisions on the LAN. After the message is sent, the device returns to its default listening mode.

QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit. All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely problem?

331

A.    The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs.
B.    The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN.
C.    The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk.
D.    VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches.
E.    Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the switches.

Answer: C
Explanation:
In order to pass traffic from VLANs on different switches, the connections between the switches must be configured as trunk ports.

QUESTION 34
What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst switch?

A.    It creates a VLAN 999 interface.
B.    It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.
C.    It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.
D.    It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Configuring the Native VLAN for Untagged Traffic
A trunk port configured with 802.1Q tagging can receive both tagged and untagged traffic. By default, the switch forwards untagged traffic in the native VLAN configured for the port. The native VLAN is VLAN 1 by default.

QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?

351

A.    This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
B.    This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.
C.    This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
D.    This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Since the port is in the blocked status, we must assume that there is a shorter path to the root bridge elsewhere.

QUESTION 36
Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?

A.    Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.
B.    A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.
C.    A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.
D.    Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.
E.    Broadcast frames are never sent to switches.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Switches dynamically learn MAC addresses based on the source MAC addresses that it sees, and since a broadcast is never the source, it will never learn the broadcast address.

QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit. Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?

371

A.    It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B.    It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C.    It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D.    It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.

Answer: D
Explanation:
The root bridge is determined by the lowest bridge ID, and this switch has a bridge ID priority of 32768, which is higher than the roots priority of 20481.

QUESTION 38
Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link? (Choose two.)

A.    VTP
B.    802.1q
C.    IGP
D.    ISL
E.    802.3u

Answer: BD
Explanation:
Cisco switches can use two different encapsulation types for trunks, the industry standard 802.1q or the Cisco proprietary ISL. Generally, most network engineers prefer to use 802.1q since it is standards based and will interoperate with other vendors.

QUESTION 39
Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a Cisco switch?

A.    1 through 1001
B.    2 through 1001
C.    1 through 1002
D.    2 through 1005

Answer: B
Explanation:
VLAN 1 is the default VLAN on Cisco switch. It always exists and can not be added, modified or removed.
VLANs 1002-1005 are default VLANs for FDDI & Token Ring and they can’t be deleted or used for Ethernet.

QUESTION 40
Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?

A.    When a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the VLAN ID can be determined from the source
MAC address and the MAC address table.
B.    Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN.
C.    Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different VLAN.
D.    Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span across the ports.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Each VLAN resides in its own broadcast domain, so incoming frames with unknown destinations are only transmitted to ports that reside in the same VLAN as the incoming frame.

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QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a switch, you executed the show interface port-channel 1 etherchannel command and it returned this output.
Which information is provided by the Load value?

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QUESTION 31
Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)

A.    There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B.    A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C.    Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D.    In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network
media before transmitting.
E.    The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
Half-duplex Ethernet is defined in the original 802.3 Ethernet and Cisco says you only use one wire pair with a digital signal running in both directions on the wire. It also uses the CSMA/CD protocol to help prevent collisions and to permit retransmitting if a collision does occur. If a hub is attached to a switch, it must operate in half-duplex mode because the end stations must be able to detect collisions. Half-duplex Ethernet–typically 10BaseT–is only about 30 to 40 percent efficient as Cisco sees it, because a large 10BaseT network will usually only give you 3- to 4Mbps–at most. Full-duplex Ethernet uses two pairs of wires, instead of one wire pair like half duplex. Also, full duplex uses a point-to-point connection between the transmitter of the transmitting device and the receiver of the receiving device, which means that with full-duplex data transfer, you get a faster data transfer compared to half duplex. And because the transmitted data is sent on a different set of wires than the received data, no collisions occur. The reason you don’t need to worry about collisions is because now Full-duplex Ethernet is like a freeway with multiple lanes instead of the single-lane road provided by half duplex. Full-duplex Ethernet is supposed to offer 100 percent efficiency in both directions; this means you can get 20Mbps with a 10Mbps Ethernet running full duplex, or 200Mbps for FastEthernet.

QUESTION 32
Which router command can be used to determine the status of Serial 0/0?

A.    show ip route
B.    show interfaces
C.    show s0/0 status
D.    debug s0/0
E.    show run
F.    show version

Answer: B

QUESTION 33
What is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?

A.    172.16.0.0
B.    172.16.128.0
C.    172.16.156.0
D.    172.16.159.0
E.    172.16.159.128
F.    172.16.192.0

Answer: C
Explanation:
Converting to binary format it comes to
11111111.11111111.11111100.00000000 or
255.255.252.0
Starting with 172.16.0.0 and having increment of 4 we get.

QUESTION 34
An administrator is working with the 192.168.4.0 network, which has been subnetted with a /26 mask. Which two addresses can be assigned to hosts within the same subnet? (Choose two.)

A.    192.168.4.61
B.    192.168.4.63
C.    192.168.4.67
D.    192.168.4.125
E.    192.168.4.128
F.    192.168.4.132

Answer: CD
Explanation:
Only the values of host with 67 and 125 fall within the range of /26 CIDR subnet mask, all others lie beyond it.

QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit. The internetwork is using subnets of the address 192.168.1.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224. The routing protocol in use is RIP version 1.
Which address could be assigned to the FastEthernet interface on RouterA?

351

A.    192.168.1.31
B.    192.168.1.64
C.    192.168.1.127
D.    192.168.1.190
E.    192.168.1.192

Answer: D

QUESTION 36
What is the network address for the host with IP address 192.168.23.61/28?

A.    192.168.23.0
B.    192.168.23.32
C.    192.168.23.48
D.    192.168.23.56
E.    192.168.23.60

Answer: C
Explanation:
convert bit-length prefix to quad-dotted decimal representation, then from it find the number of bits used for subnetting you can find previously calculated number of subnets by separating subnets each having value of last bit used for subnet masking Find that your IP address is in which subnet, that subnet’s first address is network address and last address is broadcast address. Based on above steps the answer is option C.

QUESTION 37
What is the best practice when assigning IP addresses in a small office of six hosts?

A.    Use a DHCP server that is located at the headquarters.
B.    Use a DHCP server that is located at the branch office.
C.    Assign the addresses by using the local CDP protocol.
D.    Assign the addresses statically on each node.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Its best to use static addressing scheme where the number of systems is manageable rather than use dynamic protocol as it is easy to operate and manage.

QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit. The enterprise has decided to use the network address 172.16.0.0. The network administrator needs to design a classful addressing scheme to accommodate the three subnets, with 30, 40, and 50 hosts, as shown.
What subnet mask would accommodate this network?

381

A.    255.255.255.192
B.    255.255.255.224
C.    255.255.255.240
D.    255.255.255.248
E.    255.255.255.252

Answer: A

QUESTION 39
Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)

A.    The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B.    The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
C.    The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
D.    The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E.    The network is not subnetted.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a Class A address means that there are 15 subnet bits and 9 host bits. The block size in the third octet is 2 (256 – 254). So this makes the subnets in 0, 2, 4, 6, etc., all the way to 254. The host 10.16.3.65 is in the 2.0 subnet. The next subnet is 4.0, so the broadcast address for the 2.0 subnet is 3.255. The valid host addresses are 2.1 through 3.254

QUESTION 40
Given a Class C IP address subnetted with a /30 subnet mask, how many valid host IP addresses are available on each of the subnets?

A.    1
B.    2
C.    4
D.    8
E.    252
F.    254

Answer: B
Explanation:
/30 CIDR corresponds to mask 55.255.255.252 whose binary is 11111100 which means 6 subnet bits and 2 host bits which means 62 subnets and 2 hosts per subnet.

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QUESTION 41
You have a server named Serverl that is hosted in an Azure virtual machine.
Server1 contains the following:

– One instance of SQL Server 2016 Enterprise
– 10 databases
– 500 stored procedures

You have a database named Databasel that is hosted on Server1.
Database1 contains 100 queries that are executed dynamically from web applications.
You plan to remove data from the procedure cache on Database1.
You have the following requirements:

– Changes to Database1 must not affect other databases that are hosted on Server1
– Changes to Database1 must not affect the performance of queries that are stored in other databases.
– The solution must minimize administrative effort.

You need to remove the data from the procedure cache as quickly as possible.
What should you do?

A.    Run DBCC FREEPROCCACHE.
B.    Run ALTER DATABASE SCOPED CONFIGURATION CLEAR PROCEDURE CACHE in the context of Database 1.
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QUESTION 71
You are developing a Microsoft SQL Server database.
You create a view that performs the following tasks:
Joins 10 tables that contain up to 400,000 records each.
Performs aggregations on 4 fields.
The view is frequently used in several detailed reports.
You need to improve the performance of the reports. What should you do?

A.    Convert the view into a table-valued function
B.    Convert the view into an indexed view
C.    Convert the view into a stored procedure and retrieve the result from the stored procedure into a temporary table
D.    Convert the view into a Common Table Expression (CTE)

Answer: B
Explanation:
The first index created on a view must be a unique clustered index. After the unique clustered index has been created, you can create more nonclustered indexes. Creating a unique clustered index on a view improves query performance because the view is stored in the database in the same way a table with a clustered index is stored. The query optimizer may use indexed views to speed up the query execution. The view does not have to be referenced in the query for the optimizer to consider that view for a substitution.

QUESTION 72
Is the following statement TRUE or FALSE?
JSON is not a built-in data type in SQL Server 2016, and SQL Server 2016 does not have custom JSON indexes?

A.    TRUE
B.    FALSE

Answer: A

QUESTION 73
The !> operator is a comparison operator that compares two expressions.
However, if ANSI_NULLS is set to ON and one of the operands is NULL, what will the result be?

expression !> expression (NULL)

A.    FALSE
B.    0
C.    TRUE
D.    NULL

Answer: D
Explanation:
If either or both operands are NULL and SET ANSI_NULLS is set to ON, the result is NULL. If SET ANSI_NULLS is set to OFF, the result is FALSE if one of the operands is NULL, and TRUE if both operands are NULL.

QUESTION 74
You are developing a SQL Server database that contains a heap named OrdersArchive.
You write the following Transact-SQL query:

INSERT INTO OrdersArchive
SELECT * FROM CompletedOrders

You need to optimize transaction logging and locking for the statement.
Which table hint should you use?

A.    HOLDLOCK
B.    TABLOCK
C.    XLOCK
D.    ROWLOCK

Answer: B
Explanation:
Table hints override the default behavior of the query optimizer for the duration of the data manipulation language (DML) statement by specifying a locking method, one or more indexes, a query-processing operation such as a table scan or index seek, or other options. Table hints are specified in the FROM clause of the DML statement and affect only the table or view referenced in that clause.
When importing data into a heap by using the INSERT INTO SELECT FROM statement, you can enable optimized logging and locking for the statement by specifying the TABLOCK hint for the target table. In addition, the recovery model of the database must be set to simple or bulk- logged.

QUESTION 75
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section. You will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

A database has two tables as shown in the following database diagram:

751

You need to list all provinces that have at least two large cities.
A large city is defined as having a population of at least one million residents.
The query must return the following columns:

752

Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

753

Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
The requirement to list all provinces that have at least two large cities is meet by the WHERE CitySummary.LargeCityCount >=2 clause.
CROSS APPLY will work fine here.
Note:
The APPLY operator allows you to invoke a table-valued function for each row returned by an outer table expression of a query. The table-valued function acts as the right input and the outer table expression acts as the left input. The right input is evaluated for each row from the left input and the rows produced are combined for the final output. The list of columns produced by the APPLY operator is the set of columns in the left input followed by the list of columns returned by the right input.
There are two forms of APPLY: CROSS APPLY and OUTER APPLY. CROSS APPLY returns only rows from the outer table that produce a result set from the table-valued function. OUTER APPLY returns both rows that produce a result set, and rows that do not, with NULL values in the columns produced by the table-valued function.
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms175156(v=sql.105).aspx

QUESTION 76
You create a table named Products.Sales by running the following Transact-SQL statement:

CREATE TABLE Products.Sales (
SalesId int IDENTIFY(1,1) PRIMARY KEY,
SalesDate DateTime NOT NULL,
SalesAmount decimal(18,2) NULL
)

You add the following data to the table.

761

You are developing a report to display monthly sales data.
You need to create a Transact-SQL query to meet the following requirements:

– Retrieve a column for the year followed by a column for each month from January through December.
– Include the total sales amount for each month.
– Aggregate columns by year, month, and then amount.

Construct the query using the following guidelines:

– Use the MONTH keyword as the interval when using the DATANAME function.
– Do not modify the provided IN clause.
– Do not surround object names with square brackets.
– Do not use implicit joins.
– Do not use the DATEPART function.

Part of the correct Transact-SQL has been provided in the answer area below. Enter the code in the answer area that resolves the problem and meets the stated goals or requirements. You can add code within the code that has been provided as well as below it.

1. SELECT * FROM
2. (SELECT YEAR(SalesData)) AS Year, DATENAME (MONTH, SalesDate) AS Month,
SalesAmount AS Amount
3.
4. ) AS MonthlySalesData
5.
6. FOR Month IN (January, February, March, April, May, June, July, August, September,
October, November, December))
AS MonthNamePivot

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A.    Pending

Answer: A

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