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QUESTION 11
Which Cisco Secure Access solution provides centralized policy management to give administrators more granular control over access authorization?

A.    Cisco Identity Services Engine
B.    Cisco TrustSec
C.    Cisco Advanced Malware Protection for Endpoints
D.    Cisco AnyConnect
E.    Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall

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QUESTION 51
During runtime, when a valid SQL Query in a DB Read step returns 0 rows, which branch of the step will be executed?

A.    Timeout
B.    SQL Error
C.    Successful
D.    No Data

Answer: C

QUESTION 52
In the Expression Editor panel of Cisco Unified CCX Script Editor, what are three reasons to use the Java tab? (Choose three.)

A.    to invoke a specified method of a custom Java class
B.    to reference a variable of a custom Java Object
C.    to pass variables between two different workflows
D.    to create an object for the purpose of executing methods on a remote computer
E.    to get a reference to the Contact and Session states
F.    to allow for arguments to be passed to a specified method

Answer: ABF

QUESTION 53
What does it mean for a variable in the Application Editor to be defined as a parameter?

A.    The variable can be used to pass data to and from subflows.
B.    The value for that variable can be supplied via Application Configuration in Application Administration.
C.    The value for that variable is defined by the calling application.
D.    The variable can be used in conditional steps.
E.    The variable can be used to pass data to and from VoiceXML applications.

Answer: B

QUESTION 54
Which three tasks are required to deploy a Cisco Unified CCX application? (Choose three.)

A.    create a trigger
B.    upload script to repository
C.    restart the Cisco Unified CCX Engine
D.    specify the maximum number of sessions
E.    configure default session timeout

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 55
Which option can perform Call Progress Analysis in outbound IVR?

A.    gateway
B.    Unified CM transcoder
C.    Automatic Speech Recognition server
D.    agent (voice)

Answer: A

QUESTION 56
Which deployment option is invalid for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?

A.    a two-node Cisco Unified Contact Center Express cluster connected to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster
B.    a one-node Cisco Unified Contact Center Express cluster connected to two Cisco Unified Communications Manager clusters
C.    a one-node Cisco Unified Contact Center Express cluster connected to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router
D.    two Cisco Unified Contact Center Express clusters, each with two nodes, connected to the same Cisco Unified Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster

Answer: B

QUESTION 57
Which three Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Application Administration tasks may be performed by a supervisor who does not have administrative privilege? (Choose three.)

A.    Delete a resource group.
B.    Remove a skill from a CSQ.
C.    Enable automatic work on a CSQ.
D.    Modify the skill competence level of an agent.
E.    Create a resource.
F.    Delete a skill.

Answer: BCD

QUESTION 58
Which three statements describe the importing of contacts into a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express campaign? (Choose three.)

A.    Phone1 is the only mandatory field.
B.    Up to three custom fields can be added.
C.    List filtering for “Do Not Call” is unsupported.
D.    When records have matching phone numbers, only one record is created.
E.    Imports can be automatically executed on a weekly basis.

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 59
In Cisco Unified CCX Administration, what is created on the Communications Manager when you add a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Telephony group?

A.    CTI Ports
B.    CTI Route Point
C.    Cisco Unified CCX Call Control Group
D.    Cisco Unified Communications Manager Call Control Group

Answer: A

QUESTION 60
Select a statement about the Call Subflow step that is not true.

A.    A subflow can access all variables in the calling script.
B.    When the Call Subflow step executes, you can transfer values of variables from the calling flow to the subflow.
C.    After the Call Subflow step executes, you can transfer values of variables from the subflow to the calling flow.
D.    The same subflow can be invoked from different scripts.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 51
During runtime, when a valid SQL Query in a DB Read step returns 0 rows, which branch of the step will be executed?

A.    Timeout
B.    SQL Error
C.    Successful
D.    No Data

Answer: C

QUESTION 52
In the Expression Editor panel of Cisco Unified CCX Script Editor, what are three reasons to use the Java tab? (Choose three.)

A.    to invoke a specified method of a custom Java class
B.    to reference a variable of a custom Java Object
C.    to pass variables between two different workflows
D.    to create an object for the purpose of executing methods on a remote computer
E.    to get a reference to the Contact and Session states
F.    to allow for arguments to be passed to a specified method

Answer: ABF

QUESTION 53
What does it mean for a variable in the Application Editor to be defined as a parameter?

A.    The variable can be used to pass data to and from subflows.
B.    The value for that variable can be supplied via Application Configuration in Application Administration.
C.    The value for that variable is defined by the calling application.
D.    The variable can be used in conditional steps.
E.    The variable can be used to pass data to and from VoiceXML applications.

Answer: B

QUESTION 54
Which three tasks are required to deploy a Cisco Unified CCX application? (Choose three.)

A.    create a trigger
B.    upload script to repository
C.    restart the Cisco Unified CCX Engine
D.    specify the maximum number of sessions
E.    configure default session timeout

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 55
Which option can perform Call Progress Analysis in outbound IVR?

A.    gateway
B.    Unified CM transcoder
C.    Automatic Speech Recognition server
D.    agent (voice)

Answer: A

QUESTION 56
Which deployment option is invalid for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?

A.    a two-node Cisco Unified Contact Center Express cluster connected to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster
B.    a one-node Cisco Unified Contact Center Express cluster connected to two Cisco Unified Communications Manager clusters
C.    a one-node Cisco Unified Contact Center Express cluster connected to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router
D.    two Cisco Unified Contact Center Express clusters, each with two nodes, connected to the same Cisco Unified Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster

Answer: B

QUESTION 57
Which three Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Application Administration tasks may be performed by a supervisor who does not have administrative privilege? (Choose three.)

A.    Delete a resource group.
B.    Remove a skill from a CSQ.
C.    Enable automatic work on a CSQ.
D.    Modify the skill competence level of an agent.
E.    Create a resource.
F.    Delete a skill.

Answer: BCD

QUESTION 58
Which three statements describe the importing of contacts into a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express campaign? (Choose three.)

A.    Phone1 is the only mandatory field.
B.    Up to three custom fields can be added.
C.    List filtering for “Do Not Call” is unsupported.
D.    When records have matching phone numbers, only one record is created.
E.    Imports can be automatically executed on a weekly basis.

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 59
In Cisco Unified CCX Administration, what is created on the Communications Manager when you add a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Telephony group?

A.    CTI Ports
B.    CTI Route Point
C.    Cisco Unified CCX Call Control Group
D.    Cisco Unified Communications Manager Call Control Group

Answer: A

QUESTION 60
Select a statement about the Call Subflow step that is not true.

A.    A subflow can access all variables in the calling script.
B.    When the Call Subflow step executes, you can transfer values of variables from the calling flow to the subflow.
C.    After the Call Subflow step executes, you can transfer values of variables from the subflow to the calling flow.
D.    The same subflow can be invoked from different scripts.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 11
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A.    The WLAN Layer 2 security should be sent to WPA+WPA2
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QUESTION 11
Drag and Drop Question
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QUESTION 11
Which two flexible service mapping features that are used on the ES40 line card can classify traffic into different service instances, in order to consume fewer VLANs? (Choose two.)

A.    CoS
B.    DSCP
C.    IP precedence
D.    MPLS experimental bit
E.    ToS
F.    EtherType

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QUESTION 11
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QUESTION 11
Which two responses are examples of client error responses in SIP protocol? (Choose two.)

A.    302 Moved Temporarily
B.    404 Not Found
C.    503 Service Unavailable
D.    502 Bad Gateway
E.    604 Does Not Exist Anywhere
F.    408 Request Timeout

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QUESTION 11
You have created a network design that has two point-to-point Metro Ethernet circuits extending a single production VLAN between two data centers. Under normal circumstances, one circuit will carry traffic and spanning tree will block the other. If the company wants you to make use of both circuits to carry production traffic, which two technologies and features will you investigate to integrate into your network design? (Choose two.)

A.    EtherChannel
B.    MST
C.    Multichassis EtherChannel
D.    PVST+

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QUESTION 21
A regional bank hires your company to perform a security assessment on their network after a recent data breach. The attacker was able to steal financial data from the bank by compromising only a single server.
Based on this information, what should be one of your key recommendations to the bank?

A.    Place a front-end web server in a demilitarized zone that only handles external web traffic
B.    Require all employees to change their passwords immediately
C.    Move the financial data to another server on the same IP subnet
D.    Issue new certificates to the web servers from the root certificate authority

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QUESTION 51
Files stored in the Recycle Bin in its physical location are renamed as Dxy.ext, where, “X” represents the _________.

A.    Drive name
B.    Sequential number
C.    Original file name’s extension
D.    Original file name

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QUESTION 11
What address do PIM routers listen to in order to automatically discover the best RP for each multicast group?

A.    224.0.0.13
B.    224.0.1.39
C.    224.0.0.14
D.    224.0.1.40

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QUESTION 11
Which Cisco feature can be run on a Cisco router that terminates a WAN connection, to gather and provide WAN circuit information that helps switchover to dynamically back up the WAN circuit?

A.    Cisco Express Forwarding
B.    IP SLA
C.    passive interface
D.    traffic shaping

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which protocol is best when there are circuit connections with two different ISPs in a multihoming scenario?

A.    VRRP
B.    BGP
C.    IPsec
D.    SSL

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Private lines make use of which connection type based on cell switching?

A.    ATM
B.    ISP MPLS VPN
C.    VTI
D.    VPLS

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. Which functionality must be enabled on router A to connect two networks for translating private addresses into “legal” public addresses on a one-for-one basis?

141

A.    PAT
B.    NAT
C.    VLAN
D.    GARP
E.    PPP

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which technology fulfills these requirements?

– Utilize a connection that must support a range of traffic, voice, video, and data.
– This traffic must also support transmission via a fixed blank 53-byte cell.

A.    PPP
B.    Frame Relay
C.    ATM
D.    MPLS
E.    X.25

Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which option is used as a top-of-rack device that is managed by its parent device, providing ease of management?

A.    Cisco Nexus 2000
B.    Cisco Nexus 5000
C.    Cisco Nexus 7000
D.    Cisco Nexus 9000

Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which option provides software modularity in Cisco NX-OS software in the data center design?

A.    The ip routing command enables all of the features in the Cisco NX-OS.
B.    All of the features are enabled by default in the Cisco NX-OS.
C.    Individual features must be manually enabled to start the process.
D.    The Cisco NX-OS has a management VRF that is enabled by default.

Answer: C

QUESTION 18
What is an advantage of using the vPC feature in a data center environment?

A.    VSS is a requirement.
B.    Multiple instances of control plane are formed.
C.    The control plane and management plane remain separate.
D.    Cisco FabricPath technology does not have to be configured.

Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which option is a benefit of the vPC+ feature?

A.    Cisco FabricPath is not required in the network domain.
B.    This feature provides fault domain separation.
C.    Nonfabric devices, such as a server or a classic Ethernet switch, can be connected to two fabric switches that are configured with vPC.
D.    The control plane and management plane are combined into one logical plane.

Answer: C

QUESTION 20
A network administrator wants to provide high availability in a data center environment by making sure that there is no reconvergence of Layer 2 and Layer 3 protocols when there is a Layer 3 switch failure. Which Cisco Nexus feature fulfills this purpose?

A.    ISSU
B.    VSS
C.    vPC
D.    MEC

Answer: C

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QUESTION 31
Which Cisco monitoring solution displays information and important statistics for the security devices in a network?

A.    Cisco Prime LAN Management
B.    Cisco ASDM Version 5.2
C.    Cisco Threat Defense Solution
D.    Syslog Server
E.    TACACS+

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QUESTION 11
A user is unable to establish an AnyConnect VPN connection to an ASA. When using the Real-Time Log viewer within ASDM to troubleshoot the issue, which two filter options would the administrator choose to show only syslog messages relevant to the VPN connection? (Choose two.)

A.    Client’s public IP address
B.    Client’s operating system
C.    Client’s default gateway IP address
D.    Client’s username
E.    ASA’s public IP address

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QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. If the given configuration is applied to the object-group vpnservers, during which time period are external users able to connect?

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QUESTION 11
For which purpose is the Cisco ASA CLI command aaa authentication match used?

A.    Enable authentication for SSH and Telnet connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
B.    Enable authentication for console connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
C.    Enable authentication for connections through the Cisco ASA appliance.
D.    Enable authentication for IPsec VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
E.    Enable authentication for SSL VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
F.    Enable authentication for Cisco ASDM connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.

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QUESTION 61
Which protocols can be used to send to Cisco TAC (Technical Assistance Center) the show tech- support command output information about the Cisco UCS domain? (Choose two.)

A.    TFTP
B.    FTP
C.    SCP
D.    Telnet
E.    SecureTelnet

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QUESTION 11
Which option describes the possible result of a customer configuring a server pool that contains Cisco UCS B200 M2 and B250 M2 blades?

A.    A service profile cannot migrate automatically from one blade to another blade within the server pool due
to hardware failure.
B.    You must decommission a blade server for the associated service profile to migrate to another blade in the
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C.    You must uncheck the Restrict Migration box in the service profile to allow service profile migration between
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QUESTION 41
You are trouble shooting node discovery issues by using the acidiag fnvread command.
Which description of the node status when the CLI output shows a status of Discovering is true?

A.    The node is decommissioned
B.    The node ID is configured, but not discovered yet
C.    The node is discovered, but an IP address is not assigned yet
D.    The node is discovered, but the node ID policy is not configured yet

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