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QUESTION 31
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a corporation decided to move all email to a cloud computing environment.
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) was told to research the risk involved in this environment.
Which of the following measures should be implemented to minimize the risk of hosting email in the cloud?

A.    Remind users that all emails with sensitive information need be encrypted and physically
inspect the cloud computing.
B.    Ensure logins are over an encrypted channel and obtain an NDA and an SLA from the
cloud provider.
C.    Ensure logins are over an encrypted channel and remind users to encrypt all emails that
contain sensitive information.
D.    Obtain an NDA from the cloud provider and remind users that all emails with sensitive
information need be encrypted.

Answer: B

QUESTION 32
Due to a new regulation, a company has to increase active monitoring of security-related events to 24 hours a day.
The security staff only has three full time employees that work during normal business hours. Instead of hiring new security analysts to cover the remaining shifts necessary to meet the monitoring requirement, the Chief Information Officer (CIO) has hired a Managed Security Service (MSS) to monitor events.
Which of the following should the company do to ensure that the chosen MSS meets expectations?

A.    Develop a memorandum of understanding on what the MSS is responsible to provide.
B.    Create internal metrics to track MSS performance.
C.    Establish a mutually agreed upon service level agreement.
D.    Issue a RFP to ensure the MSS follows guidelines.

Answer: C

QUESTION 33
A system administrator needs to develop a policy for when an application server is no longer needed.
Which of the following policies would need to be developed?

A.    Backup policy
B.    De-provisioning policy
C.    Data retention policy
D.    Provisioning policy

Answer: C

QUESTION 34
After a security incident, an administrator revokes the SSL certificate for their web server www.company.com.
Later, users begin to inform the help desk that a few other servers are generating certificate errors: ftp.company.com, mail.company.com, and partners.company.com.
Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for this?

A.    Each of the servers used the same EV certificate.
B.    The servers used a wildcard certificate.
C.    The web server was the CA for the domain.
D.    Revoking a certificate can only be done at the domain level.

Answer: B

QUESTION 35
A wholesaler has decided to increase revenue streams by selling direct to the public through an on-line system.
Initially this will be run as a short term trial and if profitable, will be expanded and form part of the day to day business.
The risk manager has raised two main business risks for the initial trial:

1. IT staff has no experience with establishing and managing secure on-line credit card processing.
2. An internal credit card processing system will expose the business to additional compliance requirements.

Which of the following is the BEST risk mitigation strategy?

A.    Transfer the risks to another internal department, who have more resources to accept the
risk.
B.    Accept the risks and log acceptance in the risk register.
Once the risks have been accepted close them out.
C.    Transfer the initial risks by outsourcing payment processing to a third party service provider.
D.    Mitigate the risks by hiring additional IT staff with the appropriate experience and
certifications.

Answer: C

QUESTION 36
An administrator notices the following file in the Linux server’s /tmp directory.

-rwsr-xr-x. 4 root root 234223 Jun 6 22:52 bash*

Which of the following should be done to prevent further attacks of this nature?

A.    Never mount the /tmp directory over NFS
B.    Stop the rpcidmapd service from running
C.    Mount all tmp directories nosuid, noexec
D.    Restrict access to the /tmp directory

Answer: C

QUESTION 37
Company GHI consolidated their network distribution so twelve network VLANs would be available over dual fiber links to a modular L2 switch in each of the company’s six IDFs.
The IDF modular switches have redundant switch fabrics and power supplies.
Which of the following threats will have the GREATEST impact on the network and what is the appropriate remediation step?

A.    Threat: 802.1q trunking attack
Remediation: Enable only necessary VLANs for each port
B.    Threat: Bridge loop
Remediation: Enable spanning tree
C.    Threat: VLAN hopping
Remediation: Enable only necessary VLANs for each port
D.    Threat: VLAN hopping
Remediation: Enable ACLs on the IDF switch

Answer: B

QUESTION 38
Within an organization, there is a known lack of governance for solution designs.
As a result there are inconsistencies and varying levels of quality for the artifacts that are produced.
Which of the following will help BEST improve this situation?

A.    Ensure that those producing solution artifacts are reminded at the next team meeting that
quality is important.
B.    Introduce a peer review process that is mandatory before a document can be officially
made final.
C.    Introduce a peer review and presentation process that includes a review board with representation from relevant disciplines.
D.    Ensure that appropriate representation from each relevant discipline approves of the solution documents before official approval.

Answer: C

QUESTION 39
An administrator of a secure web server has several clients with top security clearance and prefers security over performance.
By default, which of the following cipher suites would provide strong security, but at the same time the worst performance?

A.    3DES-SHA
B.    DES-MD5
C.    Camellia-SHA
D.    RC4-MD5

Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Corporate policy states that the systems administrator should not be present during system audits.
The security policy that states this is:

A.    Separation of duties.
B.    Mandatory vacation.
C.    Non-disclosure agreement.
D.    Least privilege.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 31
In which of the following testing methodologies do assessors use all available documentation and work under no constraints, and attempt to circumvent the security features of an information system?

A.    Full operational test
B.    Walk-through test
C.    Penetration test
D.    Paper test

Answer: C

QUESTION 32
Which of the following DITSCAP phases validates that the preceding work has produced an IS that operates in a specified computing environment?

A.    Phase 4
B.    Phase 3
C.    Phase 2
D.    Phase 1

Answer: B

QUESTION 33
Which of the following techniques are used after a security breach and are intended to limit the extent of any damage caused by the incident?

A.    Safeguards
B.    Preventive controls
C.    Detective controls
D.    Corrective controls

Answer: D

QUESTION 34
Which of the following roles is also known as the accreditor?

A.    Chief Risk Officer
B.    Data owner
C.    Designated Approving Authority
D.    Chief Information Officer

Answer: C

QUESTION 35
In which of the following phases of the DITSCAP process does Security Test and Evaluation (ST&E) occur?

A.    Phase 2
B.    Phase 3
C.    Phase 1
D.    Phase 4

Answer: B

QUESTION 36
What component of the change management system is responsible for evaluating, testing, and documenting changes created to the project scope?

A.    Configuration Management System
B.    Project Management InformationSystem
C.    Scope Verification
D.    Integrated Change Control

Answer: A

QUESTION 37
A project team member has just identified a new project risk. The risk event is determined to have significant impact but a low probability in the project. Should the risk event happen it’ll cause the project to be delayed by three weeks, which will cause new risk in the project. What should the project manager do with the risk event?

A.    Add the identified risk to a quality control management control chart.
B.    Add the identified risk to the risk register.
C.    Add the identified risk to the issues log.
D.    Add the identified risk to the low-level risk watchlist.

Answer: B

QUESTION 38
Which of the following concepts represent the three fundamental principles of information security?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

A.    Privacy
B.    Integrity
C.    Availability
D.    Confidentiality

Answer: BCD

QUESTION 39
Which of the following governance bodies provides management, operational and technical controls to satisfy security requirements?

A.    Chief Information Security Officer
B.    Senior Management
C.    Information Security Steering Committee
D.    Business Unit Manager

Answer: B

QUESTION 40
Your organization has a project that is expected to last 20 months but the customer would really like the project completed in 18 months. You have worked on similar projects in the past and believe that you could fast track the project and reach the 18 month deadline. What increases when you fast track a project?

A.    Risks
B.    Costs
C.    Resources
D.    Communication

Answer: A

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QUESTION 71
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QUESTION 31
Which two options are reasons why we are seeing increasing levels of business-led change? (Choose two.)

A.    Because IT solutions are going through a trend of decreasing costs.
B.    Because business requirements are changing rapidly.
C.    Because the technology led change is too expensive.
D.    Because of the disruption created by the megatrends: cloud, mobility, big data, video.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 32
Which three options are the main areas where customers will see the benefits for their investment? (Choose three.)

A.    Demand
B.    Payroll
C.    Operations
D.    Supply
E.    Business

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 33
What two elements should be considered in an investment case? (Choose two.)

A.    Delivering business results.
B.    Eliminating OPEX.
C.    Increasing CAPEX.
D.    Optimizing costs.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 34
Which two phases of the TOGAF ADM manage the process of creating a phased roadmap for technology implementation? (Choose two.)

A.    Phase D: Technology Architecture
B.    Phase E: Opportunities and Solutions
C.    Phase F: Migration Planning
D.    Phase G: Implementation Governance
E.    Phase H: Architecture Change Management

Answer: BC

QUESTION 35
Which option can assist with determining technology requirements arising from a customer initiative to implement a business process improvement?

A.    Create a Use Case diagram to model the improved business process and from this determine what technology is required.
B.    Use the Business Motivation Model to analyze business and technology requirements for a given initiative.
C.    Undertake an Ishikawa Analysis to determine root causes and determine how technology can resolve these issues.
D.    Perform a gap analysis between “as-is” and “to-be” states to determine what technology will be required.

Answer: D

QUESTION 36
When would you say your customer has adopted a solution?

A.    When they purchase the solution from the Cisco partner.
B.    When the solution is deployed.
C.    When the solution is deployed and there has been one year with no operating issues.
D.    When the solution is deployed, features and options are activated, and customer is realizing the benefits of your value proposition.

Answer: D

QUESTION 37
Which option is a benefit of technology adoption?

A.    Customer realizes the benefits stated by Cisco and the partner during the negotiation phase.
B.    Customer gets to replace their old systems and solutions.
C.    Adoption increases sales.
D.    Customer pays only when the technology is adopted.

Answer: A

QUESTION 38
Why is it important for the customer to communicate the plan to deploy an IT solution to his or her organization?

A.    So that the CEO approves the deployment.
B.    So that the Cisco Partner can claim the Software Activation promotion credits.
C.    Because communicating gives the IT organization more relevancy.
D.    Because communicating provides the organization with a vision of the benefits and an expectation to realize the results.

Answer: D

QUESTION 39
What should an adoption communications plan include?

A.    Key messages, target audience, communications channels, roles and responsibilities and success metrics.
B.    Key messages, sales forecast, communications channels, roles and responsibilities and success metrics.
C.    Sales forecast, communications channels, roles and responsibilities and sales metrics.
D.    Target audience, communications channels, sales quota, roles and responsibilities.

Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Which three options are the purpose of change management? (Choose three.)

A.    To guarantee risks related to the business need disappear.
B.    To help increase the adoption of the technology solution.
C.    To ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes.
D.    To guarantee business risk is managed and minimized.
E.    To ensure that all authorized changes support business needs and goals.

Answer: CDE

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QUESTION 31
Which three options are considerations you have to take into account when communicating the business outcomes story? (Choose three.)

A.    Be aware of people’s time and length of presentation.
B.    Organize the presentation so that the message is clear and key points emerge early.
C.    Prepare carefully the agenda and the objectives definitions.
D.    Use the right verbal and corporate language.
E.    Know your audience and what is of interest to them.

Answer: ABE

QUESTION 32
Which option is the most effective way to use best practices or scenarios during the selling process?

A.    in use cases that are relevant to the customer
B.    in business cases used previously
C.    in customer briefing documents
D.    in customer benefits statements

Answer: A

QUESTION 33
Why is it convenient to tie business outcomes and the customer value proposition?

A.    Because it accelerates the time to market of new products and solutions while maintaining a reasonable cost structure.
B.    Because this way you can establish fixed business goals and priorities and facilitate the deployment project management.
C.    To reduce complexity for stakeholders, it is easier for them to describe the benefits and to influence others to gain support.
D.    Because it keeps the value proposition unchanged, it is easier for stakeholders to claim for accountability.

Answer: C

QUESTION 34
Which option is the main element of a Business Outcomes storyline?

A.    relevancy to customers’ strategy
B.    Cisco differentiators
C.    Cisco products
D.    guaranteed customer ROI

Answer: A

QUESTION 35
Which options are two benefits of understanding the customer’s business model? (Choose two.)

A.    Understanding the customer’s business model changes the way you interact with your customer.
B.    Understanding the customer’s business model provides control and assessment of project challenges.
C.    Understanding the customer’s business model helps track progress through outcomes.
D.    Understanding the customer’s business model is used to address the sales force mindset.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 36
You are working to understand a customer business environment. Which two options are preferred data gathering techniques? (Choose two.)

A.    surveys
B.    interviews
C.    asking competitors
D.    stock analysis reports
E.    social media

Answer: AB

QUESTION 37
Which statement best describes the Cisco sales approach?

A.    Understand the goals of the buyer.
B.    Focus on Cisco technologies already in place.
C.    Focus on fulfilling customer needs and help them generate value through stronger business outcomes.
D.    Pay attention to details that the customer is sharing about their needs.

Answer: C

QUESTION 38
Cisco solutions and services are related to every kind of outcomes. What approach is frequently used to achieve business outcomes?

A.    Using Next Generation IT to increase service quality. Also, reducing risk, complexity and costs
B.    Refining, enriching or developing & enabling new business processes, new markets, and customer interactions
C.    Taking advantage of new technology to increase business relevance
D.    Improving agility & ability to create or deploy high quality, differentiated, innovative services for end users

Answer: B

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QUESTION 31
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QUESTION 31
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QUESTION 71
Cisco Finesse supports the use of custom call variable layouts. How does the agent desktop determine which layout to use?

A.    The name of the layout is passed to the agent desktop via a keyword variable that is named user layout.
B.    The layout is associated to the team under Team Resources.
C.    The layout is associated to the CSQ definition.
D.    The layout is associated to the desktop layout under Team Resources.

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QUESTION 31
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QUESTION 31
Cisco IOS XR software is partitioned into three planes: control, data, and management. Which three of these belong to the data plane? (Choose three.)

A.    XML
B.    RIB
C.    FIB
D.    QoS
E.    PFI

Answer: CDE

QUESTION 32
A network engineer is responsible for implementing a solution with Cisco IOS XR Software that insures continuous forwarding during a control plane failure. Which two technologies should the engineer consider? (Choose two.)

A.    TE FRR
B.    IP FRR
C.    graceful restart
D.    BFD
E.    NSR

Answer: CE
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/crs/software/crs_r4-3/mpls/configuration/guide/b_mpls_cg43xcrs/b_mpls_cg43crs_chapter_01.html#task_1129

QUESTION 33
What are three main characteristics of mLDP that differ from RSVP-TE? (Choose three.)

A.    The LSPs are built from tailend to headend.
B.    The LSPs are built from headend to tailend.
C.    It supports only P2MP LSPs.
D.    It supports both P2MP and MP2MP LSPs.
E.    Signaling is periodic.
F.    No periodic signaling is performed.

Answer: ADF
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/ios-nx-os-software/multicast-label-distribution-protocol-mldp/whitepaper_c11-598929_v1.pdf

QUESTION 34
Which are the two purposes of the MPLS label value 1? (Choose two.)

A.    it is used for MPLS OAM packets.
B.    it indicates an implicit null label.
C.    it is used for VPNv6 packets.
D.    it is used to carry the QoS value in the label stack.
E.    it indicates an explicit null label.
F.    it indicates a router alert label.

Answer: AF
Explanation:
A value of 1 represents the “Router Alert Label”. When a received packet contains this label value at the top of the label stack, it is delivered to a local software module for processing. The actual packet forwarding is determined by the label beneath it in the stack. However, if the packet is forwarded further, the Router Alert Label should be pushed back onto the label stack before forwarding. The use of this label is analogous to the use of the “Router Alert Option” in IP packets (for example, ping with record route option)
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/multiprotocol-label-switching-mpls/mpls/4649-mpls-faq-4649.html

QUESTION 35
Refer the exhibit. Two Autonomous Systems are enabled to support multicast. An engineer wants to set up configuration so that a multicast client at AS 100 can receive multicast traffic from the M-Server at AS 200. However, the RP announcements must be limited within each autonomous system site. Which Cisco IOS configuration achieves this goal?

351

A.    On both ASBRs Eth0/0 and the no ip pim sparse-mode command.
B.    On both ASBRs add the ip pim send-rp-discovery scope 1 command.
C.    On both RPs add the ip pim send-rp-discovery scope 2 command.
D.    On both ASBRs Eth0/0 and the ip pim bsr-border command.
E.    On both ASBRs Eth0/0 and the ip pim dense-mode command.
F.    On both RPs add the ip pim bsr-border command.

Answer: D

QUESTION 36
What is the main advantage of H-VPLS over VPLS?

A.    H-VPLS provides redundancy.
B.    H-VPLS provides security.
C.    H-VPLS improves the scalability.
D.    H-VPLS allows a broader use of protocols.

Answer: C
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps6603/products_white_paper09186a00801ed506.shtml

QUESTION 37
In a Layer 2 VPN service, which is the default behavior of an EVC-based platform with regards to VLAN manipulation?

A.    keeps the VLAN tag of the incoming frame
B.    attaches two VLAN tags to the incoming frame
C.    removes the VLAN tag from the incoming frame
D.    removes all the VLAN tags from the incoming frame
E.    sets the VLAN tag of the incoming frame

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/routers/asr-9000-series-aggregation-services-routers/116453-technote-ios-xr-l2vpn-00.html#anc7

QUESTION 38
Which of these is not a component of MPLS traffic engineering?

A.    trunk admission control
B.    forwarding traffic to tunnel
C.    information distribution
D.    path selection, calculation, and setup
E.    traffic patterns prediction

Answer: E

QUESTION 39
Which three statements about MPLS traffic engineering (MPLS TE) are true? (Choose three)

A.    MPLS TE supports admission control
B.    MPLS TE tunnel traffic is a link attribute to compute the TE tunnel path
C.    MPLS TE uses BGP extension to advertise link attributes
D.    MPLS TE provides protection capability
E.    MPLS TE uses RSVP to establish LSP

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 40
Which three statements about BGP confederation and route reflectors are true? (Choose three)

A.    Clusters are used in confederation schemes to avoid loops.
B.    BGP network can have a confederation within a route reflector area.
C.    An internal BGP network cannot have a route reflector within a confederation.
D.    An internal BGP network can have a route reflector within a confederation.
E.    Clusters are used in route reflector schemes to avoid loops.
F.    BGP network cannot have a confederation within a route reflector area.

Answer: DEF

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QUESTION 41
Which three of the following security controls would you take into consideration when implementing loT capabities? (Choose three.)

A.    Layered Security Appoach.
B.    Place security above functionality.
C.    Define lifecycle controls for loT devices.
D.    Privacy impact Assessment.
E.    Change passwords every 90 days.
F.    Implement Intrusion Detection Systems on loT devices.

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 42
Which EIGRP feature allows the use of leak maps?

A.    offset-list
B.    neighbor
C.    address-family
D.    stub

Answer: D

QUESTION 43
Refer to the exhibit. Which IPv6 OSPF network type is applied to interface Fa0/0 of R2 by default?

431

A.    broadcast
B.    Ethernet
C.    multipoint
D.    point-to-point

Answer: A

QUESTION 44
Which option describes the characteristics of a public Infrastructure as a Serveice cloud service model?

A.    It is a way of delivering cloud-computing infrastructure (servers, storage, network, and operating systems) as an on-demand service.
B.    It is a cloud service where the underlying hardware is managed by the cloud service provider.
C.    It is a cloud-computing platform that facilitates the creation of web applications without the need to maintain the supporting software applications.
D.    It is a cloud-computing platform that facilitates the creation of web applications without the need to maintain the supporting software operating systems.

Answer: A

QUESTION 45
Which effect of configuring the passive-interface S0/0 command under the EIGRP routing process is true?

A.    It prevents EIGRP neighbor relationships from being formed over interface S0/0.
B.    It configures interface S0/0 to send hello packets with the passive-interface bit set.
C.    It configures interface S0/0 to suppress all outgoing routing updates.
D.    It configures interface S0/0 to reject all incoming routing updates.

Answer: A

QUESTION 46
What is the default IS-IS interface metric on a Cisco router?

A.    255
B.    64
C.    10
D.    128

Answer: C

QUESTION 47
Which two items must be defined to capture packet data with the Embedded Packet Capture feature? (Choose two.)

A.    the capture rate
B.    the capture point
C.    the capture buffer
D.    the buffer memory size
E.    the capture filter
F.    the capture file export location

Answer: BC

QUESTION 48
When you configure an IPv6 IPsec tunnel, which two fields can represent the ISAKMP identity of a peer? (Choose two)

A.    Authentication method
B.    DH group identifier
C.    Hostname
D.    IPv6 address
E.    Encryption algorithm

Answer: CD

QUESTION 49
Which action enables passive interfaces in RIPv6(RIPng)?

A.    Use “passive-interface default” under the routing process.
B.    Enable passive-interface on interface configuration.
C.    passive interface are not supported in RIPng.
D.    Enable passive-interface for each interface under the routing process.

Answer: C

QUESTION 50
Which statement is true about IGMP?

A.    Multicast sources send IGMP messages to their first-hop router, which then generates a PIM join message that is then sent to the RP.
B.    Multicast receivers send IGMP messages to their first-hop router, which then forwards the IGMP messages to the RP.
C.    IGMP messages are encapsulated in PIM register messages and sent to the RP.
D.    Multicast receivers send IGMP messages to signal their interest to receive traffic for specific multicast groups.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 41
Which two statements are requirements regarding hunt group options for B-ACD implementation on Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express routers? (Choose two.)

A.    The ephone hunt group is mandatory.
B.    Either the ephone hunt group or the voice hunt group is acceptable.
C.    Hunt group members must be SCCP IP phones.
D.    Hunt group members can include both SCCP or SIP IP phones.
E.    Hunt group members must be SIP IP phones.
F.    The member hunting mechanism must be set to sequential.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
The ephone hunt group is mandatory, and while ephone hunt groups only support Cisco Unified SCCP IP phones, a voice hunt group supports either a Cisco Unified SCCP IP phone or a Cisco Unified SIP IP phone
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/command/reference/cme_v1ht.html

QUESTION 42
Which call hunt mechanism is only supported by the voice hunt group in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router?

A.    sequential
B.    peer
C.    longest idle
D.    parallel
E.    overlay

Answer: D
Explanation:
Parallel Hunt-Group, allows a user to dial a pilot number that rings 2-10 different extensions simultaneously. The first extension to answer gets connected to the caller while all other extensions will stop ringing. A timeout value can be set whereas if none of the extensions answer before the timer expires, all the extensions will stop ringing and one final destination number will ring indefinitely instead. The final number could be another voice hunt-group pilot number or mailbox The following features are supported for Voice Hunt-Group:
Calls can be forwarded to Voice Hunt-Group
Calls can be transferred to Voice Hunt-Group
Member of Voice Hunt-Group can be SCCP, ds0-group, pri-group, FXS or SIP phone/trunk
Max member of Voice Hunt-Group will be 32

QUESTION 43
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express ephone button configuration separator enables overflow lines when the primary line for an overlay button is occupied by an active call?

A.    o
B.    c
C.    w
D.    x
E.    :

Answer: D
Explanation:
x expansion/overflow, define additional expansion lines that are used when the primary line for an overlay button is occupied by an active call.

QUESTION 44
Which two statements describe characteristics of Cisco Unified Border Element high availability, prior to Cisco IOS release 15.2.3T, using a box-to-box redundancy configuration? (Choose two.)

A.    It leverages HSRP for router redundancy and GLBP for load sharing between a pair of routers.
B.    Cisco Unified Border Element session information is check-pointed across the active and standby router pair.
C.    It supports media and signal preservation when a switchover occurs.
D.    Only media streams are preserved when a switchover occurs.
E.    It can leverage either HSRP or VRRP for router redundancy.
F.    The SIP media signal must be bound to the loopback interface.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit. From this NFAS-enabled T1 PRI configuration on a Cisco IOS router, how many bearer channels are available to carry voice traffic?

451

A.    91
B.    92
C.    93
D.    94
E.    95

Answer: D
Explanation:
In NFAS one channel is used for signaling so according to this we will have 94 channel for with bearer capability.

QUESTION 46
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming this NFAS-enabled T1 PRI configuration on a Cisco IOS router is fully functional, what will the controller T1 1/1 D-channel status be in the output of the show isdn status command?

461

A.    MULTIPLE_FRAME_ESTABLISHED
B.    TEI_ASSIGNED
C.    AWAITING_ESTABLISHMENT
D.    STANDBY
E.    INITIALIZED

Answer: B
Explanation:
TEI_ASSIGNED, which indicates that the PRI does not exchange Layer 2 frames with the switch. Use the show controller t1 x command to first check the controller t1 circuit, and verify whether it is clean (that is, it has no errors) before you troubleshoot ISDN Layer 2 problem with the debug isdn q921.

QUESTION 47
Refer to the exhibit. In an effort to troubleshoot a caller ID delivery problem, a customer emailed you the voice port configuration on a Cisco IOS router. Which type of voice port is it?

471

A.    FXS
B.    E&M
C.    BRI
D.    FXO
E.    DID

Answer: D

QUESTION 48
The iLBC codec operates at 38 bytes per sample per 20-millisecond interval. What is its codec bit rate in kilobits per second?

A.    6.3
B.    13.3
C.    15.2
D.    16
E.    24

Answer: C
Explanation:
The internet Low Bit Rate Codec (iLBC) is designed for narrow band speech and results in a payload bit rate of 13.33 kbits per second for 30-millisecond (ms) frames and 15.20 kbits per second for 20 ms frames. When the codec operates at block lengths of 20 ms, it produces 304 bits per block, which is packetized as defined in RFC 3952. Similarly, for block lengths of 30 ms it produces 400 bits per block, which is packetized as defined in RFC 3952.The iLBC has built-in error correction functionality to provide better performance in networks with higher packet loss

QUESTION 49
Assume 6 bytes for the Layer 2 header, 1 byte for the end-of-frame flag, and a 40-millisecond voice payload, how much bandwidth should be allocated to the strict priority queue for five VoIP calls that use a G.729 codec over a multilink PPP link?

A.    87 kb/s
B.    134 kb/s
C.    102.6 kb/s
D.    77.6 kb/s
E.    71.3 kb/s

Answer: A
Explanation:
Voice payloads are encapsulated by RTP, then by UDP, then by IP. A Layer 2 header of the correct format is applied; the type obviously depends on the link technology in use by each router interface: A single voice call generates two one-way RTP/UDP/IP packet streams. UDP provides multiplexing and checksum capability; RTP provides payload identification, timestamps, and sequence numbering.

QUESTION 50
Assume 20 bytes of voice payload, 6 bytes for the Layer 2 header, 1 byte for the end-of-frame flag, and the IP, UDP, and RTP headers are compressed to 2 bytes, how much bandwidth should be allocated to the strict priority queue for six VoIP calls that use a G.729 codec over a multilink PPP link with cRTP enabled?

A.    80.4 kb/s
B.    91.2 kb/s
C.    78.4 kb/s
D.    69.6 kb/s
E.    62.4 kb/s

Answer: D
Explanation:
Voice payloads are encapsulated by RTP, then by UDP, then by IP. A Layer 2 header of the correct format is applied; the type obviously depends on the link technology in use by each router interface: A single voice call generates two one-way RTP/UDP/IP packet streams. UDP provides multiplexing and checksum capability; RTP provides payload identification, timestamps, and sequence numbering.

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QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. Your junior design engineer presents this configuration design. What is the next-hop router for CE3, and why?

311

A.    CE1. BGP weight is higher than CE2.
B.    CE2. EBGP administrative distance is lower than RIP.
C.    CE2. The link between CE2 and PE1 has more bandwidth than CE1-to-PE1.
D.    CE1. HSRP on CE1 is in active state.

Answer: A

QUESTION 32
A service provider creates a network design that runs MPLS in its WAN backbone using OSPF as the IGP routing protocol. What would be two effects of additionally implementing MPLS-TE? (Choose two.)

A.    MPLS-TE is required to reroute traffic within less than 1 second in case of a link failure inside the
backbone.
B.    MPLS-TE is required to route different MPLS QoS service classes through different paths.
C.    MPLS-TE and OSPF cannot be used together inside one MPLS network.
D.    MPLS-TE cannot use OSPF for the traffic path calculation.
E.    MPLS-TE is required to create backup paths independently from the IGP.

Answer: BE

QUESTION 33
Which two mechanisms ensure that a network design provides fast path failure detection? (Choose two.)

A.    BFD
B.    fast hello packets
C.    UDLD
D.    IP Cisco Express Forwarding

Answer: AB

QUESTION 34
In which two ways is a network design improved by the inclusion of IP Event Dampening? (Choose two.)

A.    reduces processing load
B.    provides sub-second convergence
C.    improves network stability
D.    prevents routing loops
E.    quickly detects network failures

Answer: AC

QUESTION 35
You are evaluating convergence characteristics of various interior gateway protocols for a new network design. Which technology allows link-state routing protocols to calculate paths to destination prefixes that are functionally similar to feasible successors in Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol?

A.    Incremental Shortest Path First
B.    Cisco Multiprotocol Label Switching Traffic Engineering Fast Reroute
C.    Loop-Free Alternate Fast Reroute
D.    partial route calculation
E.    Fast-Flooding

Answer: C

QUESTION 36
You are hired to design a solution that will improve network availability for users on a campus network with routed access. If the budget limits you to three components, which three components would you recommend in your design proposal? (Choose three.)

A.    redundant power supplies in the access routers
B.    standby route processors for SSO in the core routers
C.    standby route processors for SSO in the distribution routers
D.    standby route processors for SSO in the access routers
E.    replace copper links between devices with fiber links

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 37
You are designing a network to support data, voice and video. Which two main factors will you address to improve network convergence? (Choose two.)

A.    event propagation delay
B.    failure detection delay
C.    forwarding engine update delay
D.    routing table recalculation delay

Answer: BD

QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit. This diagram depicts the design of a small network that will run EIGRP on R1 and R2, and EIGRP Stub on R3. In which two ways will this network be impacted if there is link instability between R1 and R2? (Choose two.)

381

A.    R1 will have routes in its routing table that originate from R2 and R3.
B.    R3 will have routes in its routing table that originate from R1 and R2.
C.    R2 will have routes in its routing table that originate from R1 and R3.
D.    R3 will be transit for traffic between R1 and R2.
E.    R3 will not be transit for traffic between R1 and R2.

Answer: BE

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QUESTION 41
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QUESTION 71
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QUESTION 31
Which show command will show whether a WLAN is locally or centrally switched on a Cisco Wireless Lan Controller?

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QUESTION 31
After the completion of a site survey with Ekahau Site Survey tool, using the default color palette, it is noted that multiple areas are shown as white on the heat map when viewing 5 GHz signal strength data. What does this indicate about the signal strength?

A.    The area is below the minimum threshold configured on the tool.
B.    The area is below the detectable level and indicates no RF signal.
C.    The area is below -100 dBm at coverage cell edge.
D.    The area is below -67 dBm at coverage cell edge.

Answer: A

QUESTION 32
An engineer must design wireless coverage in thick-walled stairwells. Which information should the engineer refer to when determining where APs can be installed?

A.    Local or National Building Code
B.    IEEE
C.    BICSI TDMM
D.    Cisco Hardware Installation Guide

Answer: D

QUESTION 33
An engineer is performing a predictive wireless design for a medical treatment environment, which requires data and voice services. Which of the following is a requirement for the design?

A.    overlapping -72 dBm coverage from two access points
B.    overlapping -67 dBm coverage from two access points
C.    continuous -67 dBm coverage from one access point
D.    continuous -72 dBm coverage from one access point

Answer: C

QUESTION 34
A network engineer is preparing for an office site survey with a height of 2.5 meters. Which three components are recommended to complete the survey? (Choose three.)

A.    Use APs with external antennas.
B.    Use DoS attack on APs while measuring the throughput.
C.    Use APs with built-in antennas.
D.    Use a battery pack to power APs.
E.    Use a drawing of the office space to draw AP and client placements.
F.    Use APs with directional antennas.

Answer: CDE

QUESTION 35
An engineer is planning for a 24 Mbps data rate for a new installation.
What is the coverage area from the AP if the environment and other factors are not taken into consideration?

A.    225 feet
B.    80 feet
C.    150 feet
D.    100 feet

Answer: A

QUESTION 36
Which two options describe best practices that must be completed after a wireless installation is finished? (Choose two.)

A.    Make sure that there are no spaces between the devices on the rack that the Wireless Lan Controller isinstalled.
B.    Consult with the customer to ensure that the IT staff has a complete set of design and installationdocuments.
C.    Make sure the customer is aware that they should consider purchasing a support contract immediately afterthe installation is complete.
D.    Spend time with the customer to show them the controller GUI and inform them how they can reach theCisco TAC if they have any problems.
E.    Test all the customer’s wireless devices and applications to ensure they are working properly.

Answer: BE

QUESTION 37
A customer is deploying a Greenfield 802.11ac network on a floor that will support approximately 300 wireless devices. Which setting needs to be changed on Prime Infrastructure Planning Tool in order to predict the amount of access points the customer needs to service the new floor?

A.    Data Coverage Support Margin
B.    Demand Settings
C.    Add AP Field
D.    802.11n Protocol Support

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/prime_infrastructure/1-2/configuration/guide/pi_12_cg/maps.html#pgfId-1671104

QUESTION 38
What is the recommended minimum speed at the edge of the cells in an 802.11g network for a good Cisco VoWLAN deployment?

A.    11 Mb/s
B.    36 Mb/s
C.    12 Mb/s
D.    18 Mb/s

Answer: C

QUESTION 39
An engineer is conducting a location readiness test and wants a selected point to be considered location-ready. Which three possible configurations reflect the minimum number of APs needed? (Choose three.)

A.    One AP is resident in each quadrant surrounding the point-in-question.
B.    One AP per 1400 sq. ft. on the map.
C.    Two APs are resident in each quadrant surrounding the point-in- question.
D.    Four APs are deployed on the floor.
E.    Three APs are within 70 feet (21 meters) of the point-in- question
F.    Three APs are deployed on the floor.

Answer: ADE
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Borderless_Networks/Unified_Access/CMX/CMX_LocFund.pdf

QUESTION 40
A network engineer is configuring QoS with a DSCP value of 46. To which queue must the CoS be mapped for priority queuing of the voice frames?

A.    1
B.    2
C.    5
D.    4
E.    3

Answer: C

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QUESTION 31
What network technology provides Layer 2 high availability between the access and distribution layers?

A.    HSRP
B.    MEC
C.    EIGRP
D.    GLBP

Answer: B

QUESTION 32
On which two types of links should routing protocol peerings be established according to best practice? (Choose two.)

A.    distribution links
B.    end user links
C.    transit links
D.    core links

Answer: CD
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Campus/HA_campus_DG/hacampusdg.html#wp1107923

QUESTION 33
An HSRP design requirement states that preemption must be enabled for the active switch, which is a Cisco 4507R. Assume a boot time of 300 seconds.
Which setting of the preemption delay timer minimizes the loss of traffic?

A.    50 seconds
B.    100 seconds
C.    150 seconds
D.    200 seconds

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Campus/HA_campus_DG/hacampusdg.html#wp1107923
The recommended best practice is to measure the system boot time, and set the HSRP preempt delay statement to 50 percent greater than this value. This ensures that the HSRP primary distribution node has established full connectivity to all parts of the network before HSRP preemption is allowed to occur”-> We can’t choose 450 seconds so we take the higher delay available..

QUESTION 34
What is the next action taken by the Cisco NAC Appliance after it identifies a vulnerability on a client device?

A.    denies the client network resource access
B.    repairs the effected devices
C.    generates a Syslog message
D.    permits the client but limits to guest access

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/nac/appliance/configuration_guide/47/cam/47cam-book/m_intro.html
“Cisco NAC Appliance compliance policies reduce the threat of computer viruses, worms, and other malicious code on your network. Cisco NAC Appliance is a powerful tool that enables you to enforce network access requirements, detect security threats and vulnerabilities on clients, and distribute patches, antivirus and antispyware software. It lets you block access or quarantine users who do not comply with your security requirements, thereby stopping viruses and worms at the edge of the network, before they can do harm.”

QUESTION 35
Refer to the exhibit. A customer requires a web application implementation, but the web server has communication only to the application server and users, and the database server has communication only to the application server. What firewall design is the best fit for this scenario?

351

A.    transparent mode with the servers on the same subnet
B.    routed mode with three security zones
C.    transparent mode with three security zones
D.    routed mode with two security zones

Answer: B

QUESTION 36
Which route summarization most efficiently reduces perceived network complexity that is composed of subnetworks ranging from 172.16.20.0/24 to 172.16.36.0/24?

A.    172.16.8.0/21
B.    172.16.8.0/19
C.    172.16.20.0/20
D.    172.16.0.0/18
E.    172.16.20.0/19

Answer: D

QUESTION 37
What is the recommended subnet between two sites that have a point-to-point connection to conserve IP addresses?

A.    255.255.255.0
B.    255.255.252.0
C.    255.255.255.252
D.    255.255.255.240

Answer: C

QUESTION 38
In which OSI layer does IS-IS operate?

A.    Layer 1
B.    Layer 2
C.    Layer 3
D.    Layer 4

Answer: B

QUESTION 39
Which algorithm does IS-IS use to determine the shortest path through a network?

A.    Bellman-Ford routing algorithm
B.    Johnson’s algorithm
C.    Dijkstra’s algorithm
D.    Floyd-Warshall algorithm

Answer: C

QUESTION 40
Which unique EIGRP feature allows for faster Layer 3 convergence?

A.    fast EIGRP timers
B.    feasible successors
C.    hybrid routing protocol
D.    Cisco proprietary protocol

Answer: B

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