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Overview
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VanArsdel is a leader in using technology to do construction better. Continue reading [April 2018] Lead2pass 2018 100% Valid 70-535 Dumps Guarantee 100% Pass 70-535 Certification Exam 285q

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QUESTION 1
Which three statements about FCoE are true? (Choose three.)

A.    Allows Fibre Channel and Ethernet networks to share a single, integrated infrastructure.
B.    Encapsulates Fibre Channel frames into Ethernet frames, which allows them to run alongside traditional IP traffic.
C.    Increases capital costs due to the difficulty to manage.
D.    Consolidates I/O traffic in the data center.

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2
Which cable is used to access the command-line interface of a Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects?

A.    KVM cable
B.    console cable
C.    Ethernet cable
D.    SFP+ Ethernet transceiver cable

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Where do you find the model number of a Cisco MDS 9200 Series chassis?

A.    on the top front of the chassis next to the serial number
B.    on the bottom front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
C.    on the top front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
D.    on the bottom front of the chassis next to the serial number

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
How do you find the serial number of a Cisco UCS 5108 Blade Server chassis?

A.    Use the Cisco UCS Admin.
B.    Use the Cisco UCS Application.
C.    Use the Cisco UCS Assistant.
D.    Use the Cisco UCS Manager.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What does the system status LED look like when an over temperature or major alarm occurs on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnect?

A.    Amber
B.    Red
C.    Blinking amber
D.    Blinking red

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Which item does F represent?

61

A.    HDD 1
B.    TFP Module
C.    SuperCap Module
D.    CPU 2
E.    CMOS Battery

Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly identifies the front panel LEDs on the Cisco UCS C220 Server?

71

A.    A is power button and power status LED;
B is identification button and LED;
C is system status LED;
D is network link activity LED.
B.    A is network link activity LED;
B is system status LED;
C is power button and power status LED;
D is identification button and LED.
C.    A is system status LED;
B is network link activity LED;
C is power button and power status LED;
D is identification button and LED.
D.    A is network link activity LED;
B is system status LED;
C is identification button and LED;
D is power button and power status LED.

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which processor option is supported in the Cisco UCS C420 M3 Server?

A.    up to two Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
B.    up to two Intel Xeon E7-4800 series multicore processors
C.    up to four Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
D.    two or four Intel Xeon E7-8800 series multicore processors

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which two major components does a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch have? (Choose two.)

A.    Virtual Fiber Channel Module
B.    Virtual Ethernet Module
C.    Virtual Supervisor Module
D.    Virtual Memory Controller Module
E.    Virtual Network Module

Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports?

A.    Cisco Nexus 5548P
B.    Cisco Nexus 5548UP
C.    Cisco Nexus 5596UP
D.    Cisco Nexus 5596T

Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Given:

11

Which option enables the code to compile?

12

A.    Option A
B.    Option B
C.    Option C
D.    Option D

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Given the code fragment:

21

What is the result?

A.    [Robb, Rick, Bran]
B.    [Robb, Rick]
C.    [Robb, Bran, Rick, Bran]
D.    An exception is thrown at runtime.

Answer: A
Explanation:
After adding elements to names we have a list with four elements and element “Bran” repeated.
After removing element “Bran” we have a list with three elements [Robb, Rick, Bran].
remove method removes the first occurrence of the specified element from this list, if it is present. If the list does not contain the element, it is unchanged.
https://docs.oracle.com/javase/8/docs/api/java/util/ArrayList.html#remove-java.lang.Object-

QUESTION 3
Given:

31

What is the result?

A.    C B A
B.    C
C.    A B C
D.    Compilation fails at line n1 and line n2

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Given:

41

What is the result?

A.    3 4 5 6
B.    3 4 3 6
C.    5 4 5 6
D.    3 6 4 6

Answer: C
Explanation:
Since variable i is static, it is shared by all instances of X. When code executes x2.i = 5, x1.i = 5 too.
Since variable j isn’t static, each instance of X has its own copy of j.

QUESTION 5
Given the code fragment:

51

Which code fragment, when inserted at line 3, enables the code to print 10:20?

A.    int[] array = new int[2];
B.    int[] array;
array = int[2];
C.    int array = new int[2];
D.    int array [2] ;

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Given the code fragment:

61

What is the result?

A.    A B C Work done
B.    A B C D Work done
C.    A Work done
D.    Compilation fails

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which three are advantages of the Java exception mechanism?

A.    Improves the program structure because the error handling code is separated from the normal program function
B.    Provides a set of standard exceptions that covers all the possible errors
C.    Improves the program structure because the programmer can choose where to handle exceptions
D.    Improves the program structure because exceptions must be handled in the method in which they occurred
E.    Allows the creation of new exceptions that are tailored to the particular program being created

Answer: ACE
Explanation:
B is false. Standard exceptions not cover all possible errors.
D is false. Exceptions don’t have to be handled in the method in which they occurred.

QUESTION 8
Given the code from the Greeting.Java file:

81

Which set of commands prints Hello Duke in the console?

82

A.    Option A
B.    Option B
C.    Option C
D.    Option D

Answer: C
Explanation:
Source code file names must have .java suffixes to compile with javac
We interpret or run the program with “java <class name without suffix> arguments”
http://docs.oracle.com/javase/8/docs/technotes/tools/windows/javac.html
http://docs.oracle.com/javase/8/docs/technotes/tools/windows/java.html

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QUESTION 1
View the exhibit and examine the structure of the PRODUCTS table.

11

The PRODUCTS table contains 20 rows.
In the data that has been entered, the PROD_ID column contains only single digit values, PROD_NAMKhas a maximum of 5 characters, and RATE has 4 digit values for all rows.
Which two statements are true regarding the modifications that can be performed to the structure of the PRODUCTS table? (Choose two.)

A.    PROD_NAME size can be reduced from 10 to 5 characters.
B.    PROD_IP can be changed from CHAR to NUMBER data type.
C.    Now columns can be added only if they have NOT NULL constraint.
D.    PROD_RATE size can be changed from NUMBER (4) to NUMBER (6, 2).
E.    None of the existing columns can be dropped because they contain data.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
Your database instance is running. A user, SCOTT, starts a SQL*Plus session, and issues the following query;

SQL>SELECT *
FROM sales:

Which process would retrieve the result from the database and return it to the client program?

A.    user process
B.    server process
C.    System Monitor (SMON)
D.    Process Monitor (PMON)
E.    Checkpoint process (CKPT)

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true regarding Oracle Net? (Choose two.)

A.    It must reside only on the client for traditional client/server applications.
B.    It must reside only on the database server for web-based applications.
C.    It must reside on both the web server and database server for web-based applications.
D.    It must reside on both the client and database server for traditional client/server applications.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
You have some operatingsystem scripts on one server that need to run in response to certain changes in data in your Oracle Database.
The mostefficient way to implement this with Oracle Database 11g would be:

A.    Write a PL/SQL routine that connects to the remote server and calls the script.
B.    Create a script on the database server to perform the remote action and thatscript from adatabase trigger.
C.    Modify the script on the remote server to periodically chock for these data change in your Oracle database.
D.    Install an Oracle Scheduler Agent on the remote server and create job to be called from Oracle scheduler in response to a database server event.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
View the exhibit. You are creating a database by using Database Configuration Assistant (DHCIA). You have chosen the File System option as the storage mechanism.
What would be the result of choosing this option?

51

A.    Disk mirroring and striping would be done automatically.
B.    The database files would be managed by the operating system’s file system.
C.    DBCA would not save the database files by using Optimal File Architecture (OFA).
D.    The data files are automatically spread across all available storage devices to optimize performance and resource utilization.

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
View the exhibit. You plan to load the customer information that has been brought from a non Oracle database in the CUSTOMERS table in your database using the “Enterprise Manager Load Data From User File” option.
Which files should you create before using this option?

61

A.    only data file
B.    data file and log file
C.    data file and dump file
D.    data file and control file

Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true regarding the use of SQL in Oracle database? (Choose two)

A.    SQL is used to control access to the database and its objects.
B.    SQL can handle the creation of variables to store temporary values in a session.
C.    SQL allows a user to specify where the data is physically stored on the storage device.
D.    SQL is used to manipulate the data in binary file large objects (LOBs) that are stored outside the database.
E.    All SQL statements automatically use the optimizing that is available as part of Oracle database to determine the most efficient means of accessing data.

Answer: AE

QUESTION 8
You issue the following command as a DBA:

SQL> SHUTDOWN

What would be the outcome of the above command?

A.    It causes the instance to abort.
B.    It waits for all sessions to disconnect.
C.    It rolls back the current transactions and disconnects a/I sessions.
D.    It waits for the current transaction in each session to complete before disconnecting the sessions.

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Enterprise Manager beacons are a feature of which 11g management pack?

A.    Provisioning and Patch Automation
B.    Database Diagnostics
C.    Configuration Management
D.    Real User Experience Insight

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What is needed to establish monitoring of SSL-encrypted HTTP traffic?

A.    Monitoring of SSL traffic is not supported by RUEI.
B.    Installation of an SSL decryption card is required in the RUEI server.
C.    A copy of the SSL key and certificate need to be uploaded to RUEI.
D.    RUEI should negotiate a private SSL key/certificate pair with each Web server.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Examine the following commands:

# groupadd project
# mkdir /usr/share/project
# chown -r root.project /usr/share/project
# qpasswd -a scott project
# qpasswd -a foo project
# chmod 2775 /usr/share/project

Based on the commands, which statement is correct?

A.    Any new file created in the /usr/share/project folder by user scott will not be possible for foo to modify it.
B.    All members of the project group need the administrator’s help to change the file permission every time users write new files in the /usr/share/project folder.
C.    Files created by all members of the project group in the /usr/share/project folder will get the same group permission as the folder itself.
D.    The chmod command can only take a tree-digit argument.

Answer: A
Explanation:
*A permission of “2755” for a directory means that everyone has read and execute permission, while the file owner and members of the file’s group additionally have write permission. And any files or subdirectories created in that directory will inherit the parent directory’s group id.
Incorrect:
Not D: chmod 2775 is a valid command.

QUESTION 2
View the exhibit.

21

Examine the grub.conf file snippet in the Exhibit. Which statement is true if your Linux system boots by using this grub.conf file?

A.    GRUB will boot, by default, the first kernel entry of this grub.conf file.
B.    GRUB will prompt you to select the kernel to be booted because the default parameter is set to 0.
C.    GRUB will boot the kernel specified in the inittab file of the system.
D.    GRUB will boot, by default, the second kernel entry of this grub.conf file.

Answer: A
Explanation:
According the grub .conf file you have got 8 seconds to choose whether to boot the first entry.Now if you want to change, and let say you want the second grub entry as booting system by default, justchange the line:default=0 bydefault=1

QUESTION 3
The DBA tells you that the system is not overloaded but you can tell that the system us actively swapping. What command would you run to show this information to the DBA?

A.    # iotop
B.    # iostat 5 10
C.    # cat /proc/meminfo
D.    # vmstat 5 10

Answer: B
Explanation:
*iostat – Report Central Processing Unit (CPU) statistics and input/output statistics for devices, partitions and network filesystems (NFS).
*The iostat command is used for monitoring system input/output device loading by observing the time the devices are active in relation to their average transfer rates. The iostat command generates reports that can be used to change system configuration to better balance the input/output load between physical disks.
Incorrect:
Not A: Related to kernel and processes.
*iotop – simple top-like I/O monitor
*iotop watches I/O usage information output by the Linux kernel (requires 2.6.20 or later) and displays a table of current I/O usage by processes or threads on the system.
*iotop displays columns for the I/O bandwidth read and written by each process/thread during the sampling period. It also displays the percentage of time the thread/process spent while swapping in and while waiting on I/O. For each process, its I/O priority (class/level) is shown. In addition, the total I/O bandwidth read and written during the sampling period is displayed at the top of the interface.
Not C: related to RAM usage.
*The entries in the /proc/meminfo can help explain what’s going on with your memory usage, if you know how to read it.
*High-Level Statistics
MemTotal: Total usable ram (i.e. physical ram minus a few reserved bits and the kernel binary code)
MemFree: Is sum of LowFree+HighFree (overall stat) MemShared: 0; is here for compat reasons but always zero. Buffers: Memory in buffer cache. mostly useless as metric nowadays Cached: Memory in the pagecache (diskcache) minus SwapCache SwapCache: Memory that once was swapped out, is swapped back in but still also is in the swapfile (if memory is needed it doesn’t need to be swapped out AGAIN because it is already in the swapfile. This saves I/O)
Not D:vmstat – Report virtual memory statistics

QUESTION 4
View the cron job example below. How often will this cron job run?

0 */ 5 * * * command

A.    every 5 minutes
B.    every 5 hours
C.    every 5 days
D.    every 5th month

Answer: B
Explanation:
Execute a cron job every 5 Hours
The second field is for hours. If you specify * in this field, it runs every hour. If you specify */5 in the 2nd field, it runs every 5 hours as shown below.
0 */5 * * * /home/ramesh/backup.sh

QUESTION 5
What happens when the following command is run?

# authconfig – – passalgo = md5 – – update

A.    It produces the MD5 checksum of the input data.
B.    It configures the MD5 checksum for newly authored documents
C.    It converts the stdio input to MD5 algorithm.
D.    It changes the user password hashing algorithm to MD5.

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Identify the two kernels that are shipped with Oracle Linux 6.

A.    Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel
B.    Unbeatable Enterprise Kernel 11g
C.    Red Hat Compatible Kernel
D.    Linux Compatible Kernel
E.    Solaris 11 Container Kernel

Answer: AC
Explanation:
Oracle Linux 6 ships with two sets of kernel packages:
*Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel [kernel-uek-2.6.32-100.28.5.el6] Only available on the x86_64 (64 bit) platform
Installed and booted by default
*Red Hat compatible Kernel [kernel-2.6.32-71.el6] Installed by default

QUESTION 7
You have to find the default run level of your Oracle Linux system.
Which file will help you find this information?

A.    /boot/grub/grub.conf
B.    /etc/inittab
C.     /etc/rc.d/rc.sysinit
D.     /etc/rc.local
E.     /etc/rc.d/init.d

Answer: B
Explanation:
The default run level is specified in the /etc/inittab file.

QUESTION 8
On your Oracle Linux 6 system, you have to configure the eth0 network interface to 100 MB/sec, half duplex without trying to autonegotiate. Which command will help you configure this requirement?

A.    # ifconfig eth0 speed 100 autoneg off duplex half
B.    # ethtool interface eth0 speed 100 autoneg off duplex half
C.    # ifconfig interface eth0 speed 100 autoneg off duplex half
D.    # ethtool -seth0speed 100 autoneg off duplex half

Answer: D
Explanation:
When I have a device that is acting up, I tend to run: ethtool ethX, check the Supported link modes, the Link partner advertised link modes and the actual speed and Duplex. If my Supported link mode is set low (say 10/Half for some reason) but my switch supports 1000baseT/Full then I’ll use ethtool -s ethX to change my ethernet settings to 1000baseT/Full. Just about anything you see from: ethtool ethX, can be changed with ethtool -S ethX. In this case you would use the following:
ethtool -S eth0 speed 1000 duplex full autoneg on

QUESTION 9
As a system administrator, you run the system-config-network tool and make changes to the configuration. You change the hostname and the DNS search path settings. Which two files will these changes be written into?

A.    “/etc/sysconfig/network” and “/etc/resolv.conf” files
B.    “/etc/sysconfig/network” and “etc/nsswitch.conf/” files
C.    “/etc/sysconfig/netconfig” and “/etc/resolv.conf” files
D.    “etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/network” and “/etc/resolv.conf” files

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which two statements are correct about the Oracle ASMLib library?

A.    Oracle ASMLib is an optional support library for the Automatic Storage Management (ASM) feature.
B.    To use ASMLib library, you have to recompile it first for the Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel.
C.    Oracle Automatic Storage management (ASM) requires Oracle ASMLib library to function completely.
D.    Oracle ASMLib kernel driver is included in the Unbreakable Kernel.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
A (not C):ASMLib is an optional support library for the Automatic Storage Management feature of the Oracle Database.
ASMLib allows an Oracle Database using ASM more efficient and capable access to the disk groups it is using.
D (not B):The Oracle ASMLib kernel driver is now included in the Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel. No driver package needs to be installed when using this kernel.

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QUESTION 1
Which three statements are true regarding Flex ASM on a four-node cluster consisting of three-hub nodes and a leaf node?

A.    An ASM instance and database instances can coexist on the same hub node.
B.    A database instance on a hub node can be a client of an ASM instance running on any leaf node.
C.    A database instance on a hub node can be a client of an ASM instance running on any hub node.
D.    A database instance on a leaf node can be a client of an ASM instance running on any hub node.
E.    A database instance on a hub node uses an ASM instance as an I/O server when requesting I/O todiskgroups.
F.    ASM Cluster File System (ASFS) can only be deployed on hub nodes.

Answer: ACF
Explanation:
Architecturally Oracle Flex Cluster comprises of a Hub and Leaf architecture where in only the Hub nodes will only have direct access to Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR) and Voting Disk (VD). However application can access the database via Leaf nodes without ASM instance NOT running on Leaf nodes. The connection to the database is through Hub making it transparent for the application.
Note:
Hub Nodes are connected among them via private network and have direct access to the shared storage just like previous versions. These nodes are the ones that access the Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR) and Voting Disk (VD) directly.
Leaf Nodes are lighter and are not connected among them, neither accesses the shared storage like the Hub Nodes. Each Leaf Node communicates with the Hub Node that is attached to, and it is connected to the cluster via the Hub Node that is linked to.
http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/articles/database/flexasm-flexcluster-benefits-odb12c-2177371.html

QUESTION 2
Which two statements are true about initialization parameters for Clustered ASM instances?

A.    A change to ASM_DISKSTRING requires a restart of all ASM instances for the change to take effect.
B.    ASM_POWER_LIMIT controls he number of RDBMS instances that can access a disk group while it isbeing rebalanced.
C.    The ASM_DISKGROUP parameter is optional.
D.    The default value of INSTANT_TYPE is ASM.
E.    The maximum value of ASM_POWER_LIMIT is 1024.

Answer: CE
Explanation:
C: The default value of the ASM_DISKGROUPS parameter is a NULL string. If the parameter value is NULL or is not specified, then ASM does not mount any disk groups.
E: The ASM_POWER_LIMIT initialization parameter specifies the default power for disk rebalancing in a disk group. The range of values is 0 to 1024.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The ASM_POWER_LIMIT initialization parameter specifies the default power for disk rebalancing in a disk group. The range of values is 0 to 1024.
D: The default value of INSTANT_TYPE is RDBMS.
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e18951/asminst.htm#BHCEHJGA

QUESTION 3
Which three statements are true concerning diagnostic components and requirements of Oracle 12c Clusterware?

A.    There is one ologgered service for the cluster health monitor (CHM) on each cluster node regardless ofcluster size.
B.    The Grid Infrastructure Management Repository database must run on a hub node if Flex Clusters areused.
C.    There is one osysmond service for the cluster health monitor (CHM) on each cluster node regardless ofcluster size.
D.    The oclumon utility may be used to get and set parameters for the cluster health monitor (CHM) repository.
E.    The diagcollection.pl script must be run from the Grid home directory as the Grid infrastructure owner.
F.    The clusterware log files are stored inside the Grid Infrastructure Management Repository database usedby the cluster health monitor (CHM).

Answer: BCD
Explanation:
B: The Oracle Grid Infrastructure Management Repository Runs on one node in the cluster.This must be a Hub Node in an Oracle Flex Cluster configuration.
C: There is one system monitor service on every node. The system monitor service (osysmond) is a real-time, monitoring and operating system metric collection service that sends the data to the cluster logger service.
D: Use the oclumon manage command to view and change configuration information from the system monitor service.
Syntax
   oclumon manage -repos {{changeretentiontime time} | {changerepossize
   memory_size}} | -get {key1 [key2 …] | alllogger [-details] | mylogger [-details]}
Where changerepossize memory_size: Use this option to change the CHM repository space limit to a specified number of MB.
Note: The OCLUMON command-line tool is included with CHM and you can use it to query the CHM repository to display node-specific metrics for a specified time period. You can also use OCLUMON to perform miscellaneous administrative tasks, such as changing the debug levels, querying the version of CHM, and changing the metrics database size.
Incorrect Answers:
E: You can collect CHM data from any node in the cluster by running the Grid_home/bin/diagcollection.pl script on the node.
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CWADD/troubleshoot.htm#CHDIGCEC

QUESTION 4
PROD1, PROD2 and PROD3 are three active instances of the PROD database.
Examine these commands executed on PROD1:

SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS=200 SCOPE=MEMORY sid=’*’; SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS=100 SCOPE=MEMORY sid=’PROD1′;

Which statement is true?

A.    PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS will be 200 for all instances of PROD.
B.    PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS will be 100 for all instances of PROD.
C.    The second statement returns an error because this parameter must be identical for all isntances.
D.    PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS will be 200 for PROD2 and PROD3 and 100 for PROD1.

Answer: D
Explanation:
First SET PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS is set to 200 for all instances, then it is set to 100 for PROD1.

QUESTION 5
Which three events occur when a hub node fails in an Oracle Clusterware 12c Flex Cluster?

A.    The hub node is evicted from the cluster
B.    Leaf nodes connected to the failing hub node are reconnected to a surviving hub node without servicedisruption.
C.    Cluster resources running on leaf nodes connected to the failed hub node are relocated to one or moresurviving hub nodes.
D.    Cluster resources running on leaf nodes connected to the failed hub node are relocated to one or moresurviving leaf nodes.
E.    Cluster resources running on the failed hub node are relocated to one or more surviving hub nodes.
F.    Cluster resources running on the failed hub node are relocated to one or more surviving leaf nodes.
G.    Cluster resources running on the failed hub node are relocated to one or more surviving hub nodes or leafnodes, or both.

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
Incorrect Answers:
F, G: Leaf Nodes are different from standard Oracle Grid Infrastructure nodes, in that they do not require direct access to shared storage, but instead request data through Hub Nodes. Hub Nodes can run in an Oracle Flex Cluster configuration without having any Leaf Nodes as cluster member nodes, but Leaf Nodes must be members of a cluster that includes at least one Hub Node.
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CWADD/bigcluster.htm#CWADD92409

QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true about Flex ASM in a Flex Cluster?

A.    Oracle databases from releases older than 12c cannot use Flex ASM.
B.    ASFS may only be configured on a hub node running an ASM instance.
C.    Instances of ASM-based databases on hosts that have no ASM instance running, require Flex ASM.
D.    Flex ASM requires that I/Os requests be sent through an ASM Proxy Instance, regardless of database andASM instance placement in a cluster.
E.    Hub nodes with connections from multiple leaf nodes must run an ASM instance.

Answer: BE
Explanation:
B: Oracle Automatic Storage Management Cluster File System (Oracle ACFS) can only be run on the hub nodes, not the leaf nodes. Architecturally Oracle Flex Cluster comprises of a Hub and Leaf architecture where in only the Hub nodes will only have direct access to Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR) and Voting Disk (VD).
E: application can access the database via Leaf nodes without ASM instance NOT running on Leaf nodes. The connection to the database is through Hub making it transparent for the application.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The Oracle Flex ASM can be implemented in two ways:
Pure 12c Flex ASM (Same Version)
Both Grid Infrastructure (GI) and Database running on Oracle 12c
Pre Oracle 12c Mixed (Different Versions)
As normal ASM instance will run on each node with Flex configuration to support pre 12c database. The compatibility parameter of ASM disk group is used to manage the compatibility of between and among database instances. Advantage of this approach is that if an Oracle 12c database instance loses connectivity with an ASM instance, then the database connections will failover to another ASM instance on a different server. This failover is achieved by setting the cardinality to all.
http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/articles/database/flexasm-flexcluster-benefits-odb12c-2177371.html

QUESTION 7
Which three statements are true about the cluster file system archiving scheme?

A.    Each node can read only the archived logs written by itself.
B.    Nodes don’t use network to archive files.
C.    Each node can read the archive redo log files of the other nodes.
D.    Each node archives to a uniquely named local directory.
E.    Each node archives to a local directory with the same path on each cluster node.
F.    Each node writes to a single location on the cluster file system while archiving the redo log files.

Answer: BCF
Explanation:
Initialization Parameter Settings for the Cluster File System Archiving Scheme
In the cluster file system scheme, each node archives to a directory that is identified with the same name on all instances within the cluster database (/arc_dest, in the following example). To configure this directory, set values for the LOG_ARCH_DEST_1 parameter, as shown in the following example:
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/RACAD/rman.htm#RACAD320

QUESTION 8
Which three statements are true regarding multitenant architecture for RAC databases?

A.    One UNDO tablespace for each PDB is required.
B.    One UNDO tablespace for each instance is required.
C.    PDBs can have local temporary tablespaces.
D.    All the containers share the same SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces.
E.    You can open one, several, or all PDBs on one, several, or all CDB instances.

Answer: BCE
Explanation:
B: For an Oracle RAC CDB, one active undo tablespace exists for each instance.
C: From a physical perspective, a CDB has basically the same structure as a non-CDB, except that each PDB has its own set of tablespaces (including its own SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces) and data files.
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CNCPT/cdblogic.htm#CNCPT89268

QUESTION 9
Which two statements are true about ASM alias names?

A.    ASM files created using an alias name are not OMF files even if OMF is enabled.
B.    Alias file names cannot be used together with templates when creating tablespaces.
C.    ASM files created using an alias name are OMF files even if OMF is not enabled.
D.    Alias names can be stored only in user-defined directories.
E.    ASM files created using an alias name also have a fully qualified name and can be accessed by eithername.

Answer: AE

QUESTION 10
Which three statements are true concerning activation of a user-defined policy in Oracle 12c Clusterware?

A.    When a policy is first created, it is initially active.
B.    When a policy is activated, nodes may be reassigned to server pools based on the policy definition.
C.    An administrator-defined policy may be activated using the srvctl utility.
D.    When a policy is activated, resources cannot be automatically started to comply with the policy definition.
E.    When a policy is first created, it is initially inactive.
F.    When a policy is activated, resources can be automatically stopped to comply with the policy definition.

Answer: BCE
Explanation:
BE: You can activate policies when necessary, prompting Oracle Clusterware to reconfigure a server pool according to each policy’s configuration.
C: The following command activates the DayTime policy:
  $ crsctl modify policyset -attr “LAST_ACTIVATED_POLICY=DayTime”
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CWADD/pbmgmt.htm#CWADD92594

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QUESTION 21
A technician wants to separate networks on a switch. Which of the following should be configured to allow this?

A.    VLAN
B.    Trunking
C.    Spanning tree
D.    Traffic filtering

Answer: A
Explanation:
A VLAN is a group of end stations in a switched network that is logically segmented by function, project team, or application, without regard to the physical locations of the users. VLANs have the same attributes as physical LANs, but you can group end stations even if they are not physically located on the same LAN segment.

QUESTION 22
A user does not have network connectivity. While testing the cable the technician receives the below reading on the cable tester:

1———–1
2———–2
3———–3
4———–4
5———–5
6———–6
7———–7
8———–8

Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?

A.    Cable is a crossover, continue troubleshooting
B.    Pin 3 is not used for data, continue troubleshooting
C.    Pin 3 is not used for data, replace the NIC
D.    Redo the cable’s connectors

Answer: D

QUESTION 23
A technician needs multiple networks, high speeds, and redundancy on a system. Which of the following configurations should be considered for these requirements? (Select TWO).

A.    Routing table
B.    Next hop
C.    Port mirroring
D.    Port monitoring
E.    VLANs

Answer: CE
Explanation:
Port mirroring is used on a network switch to send a copy of network packets seen on one switch port (or an entire VLAN) to a network monitoring connection on another switch port. This is commonly used for network appliances that require monitoring of network traffic, such as an intrusion detection system, passive probe or real user monitoring (RUM) technology that is used to support application performance management (APM).
In computer networking, a single layer-2 network may be partitioned to create multiple distinct
broadcast domains, which are mutually isolated so that packets can only pass between them via one or more routers; such a domain is referred to as a Virtual Local Area Network, Virtual LAN or VLAN.

QUESTION 24
A technician decides to upgrade a router before leaving for vacation. While away, users begin to report slow performance. Which of the following practices allows other technicians to quickly return the network to normal speeds?

A.    Change management
B.    Baselines
C.    Asset management
D.    Cable management

Answer: A
Explanation:
As soon as technician found a problem he generates a change management request to make changes to fast up the speed of router.

QUESTION 25
Which of the following would a network administrator recommend to satisfy fault tolerance needs within the datacenter?

A.    Multimode fiber
B.    Setting up a new hot site
C.    Central KVM system
D.    Central UPS system

Answer: D
Explanation:
For unintruppted power supply we need ups as from this no power issue will come and our systems will remain safe.

QUESTION 26
During a disaster recovery test, several billing representatives need to be temporarily setup to take payments from customers. It has been determined that this will need to occur over a wireless network, with security being enforced where possible. Which of the following configurations should be used in this scenario?

A.    WPA2, SSID enabled, and 802.11n.
B.    WEP, SSID enabled, and 802.11b.
C.    WEP, SSID disabled, and 802.11g.
D.    WPA2, SSID disabled, and 802.11a.

Answer: D
Explanation:
WPA2 is a security technology commonly used on Wi-Fi wireless networks. WPA2 (Wireless Protected Access 2) replaced the original WPA technology on all certified Wi-Fi hardware since 2006 and is based on the IEEE 802.11i technology standard for data encryption.

QUESTION 27
Which of the following wiring distribution types, often found in company closets, is used to connect wiring from individual offices to the main LAN cabling?

A.    MDF
B.    66 block
C.    IDF
D.    Patch panel

Answer: D
Explanation:
A patch panel, patch bay, patch field or jack field is a number of circuits, usually of the same or similar type, which appear on jacks for monitoring, interconnecting, and testing circuits in a convenient, flexible manner.

QUESTION 28
Which of the following network access security methods ensures communication occurs over a secured, encrypted channel, even if the data uses the Internet?

A.    MAC filtering
B.    RAS
C.    SSL VPN
D.    L2TP

Answer: C
Explanation:
SSL VPN consists of one or more VPN devices to which the user connects by using his Web browser. The traffic between the Web browser and the SSL VPN device is encrypted with the SSL protocol or its successor, the Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol.

QUESTION 29
Which of the following is the difference between 802.11b and 802.11g?

A.    Distance
B.    Frequency
C.    Speed
D.    Transmission power

Answer: C
Explanation:
802.11b has a maximum speed of 11Mbps whereas 802.11g has a speed of 54Mbps.

QUESTION 30
Users are reporting that some Internet websites are not accessible anymore. Which of the following will allow the network administrator to quickly isolate the remote router that is causing the network communication issue, so that the problem can be reported to the appropriate responsible party?

A.    Ping
B.    Protocol analyzer
C.    Tracert
D.    Dig

Answer: C
Explanation:
Tracet command will tell the administrator which route is not present or which is present so he will come to know whether he has appropriate route or not.

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QUESTION 21
You are a developer for an Independent Software Vendor (ISV).

You need to create new extended data types in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.

What are two best practices for extending a series of data types?Each correct answer presents acomplete solution.

A.    An EDT should be created for each atomic entity being utilized.
B.    Subtypes are not required for EDTs that do not contain any property changes.
C.    You cannot extend the recID or tableID system data types.
D.    You cannot use EDTs if one of them is a member of the parent extended data.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
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QUESTION 22
You are installing Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Retail at a store location.

You want to share a drawer between point-of-sale (POS) clients.

To achieve this goal, which component should you install on the computer connected to the cash drawer?

A.    Hardware Station
B.    Cloud POS
C.    Commerce Runtime (CRT)
D.    Retail Server

Answer: A
Explanation:
Retail hardware station provides services that enable retail POS clients and peripherals such as printers, cash drawers, and payment devices to communicate with retail server.

QUESTION 23
You manage a Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Retail environment.

You are preparing to deploy packages.
Which two types of items can you deploy as a package? Each correct answer presents a completesolution.

A.    a binary hotfix to the Application Object Server (AOS) runtime components
B.    an updated Dynamics 365 for Retail customization package
C.    a Microsoft Dynamics 365 Language Pack
D.    a Retail Software Development Kit (SDK)

Answer: AB
Explanation:
A deployable package is a unit of deployment that can be applied in any Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Retailenvironment. A deployable package can be a binary hotfix to the Application Object Server (AOS) runtimecomponents, an updated Dynamics 365 for Retail customization package, or a new Microsoft Dynamics365 for Retail customization/application module package.

QUESTION 24
You are adding a relationship to a table.

Which two best practices should you follow? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Define a navigational relationship; the validate property on the relation should be set to “Yes” for easier navigation.
B.    Set the validate property to No when you are using navigational relationships so that the application is easy to navigate.
C.    Name the relationship with an “_rel” suffix in order to differentiate it from the index that is appended with”_idx”.
D.    Define the relationship to a foreign key on the child table by setting the validate property on the relation to Yes.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 25
What are two benefits of applying a form pattern to a form? Each correct answer presents part of thesolution.

A.    ensures data consistency by enforcing common relationship patterns between datasources
B.    provides default values for many properties on controls
C.    enforces a consistent style so that the forms a user encounters are immediately recognizable
D.    allows a developer to create many delivered forms from a base form

Answer: BC
Explanation:
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Enterprise Edition, makes development easier byproviding a guided experience for applying patterns to forms to ensure they are correct and consistent.
They help validate forms and control structures and the use of controls incertain places. Using patternsalso ensures that each new form encountered by a user is immediatelyrecognizable in appearance andfunction. Form patterns can provide many default control properties, which leads to a more guideddevelopment experience.

QUESTION 26
You are an Independent Software Vendor (ISV) developer and are reviewinganother developer’s changesto a project.

You run the Best Practices Fixer on the project. The following error message appears in the error list in Visual Studio for the display menu item XYZ:

BP Rule: [BPErrorMenuItemNotCoveredByPrivilege]:Path: [dynamics://MenuItemDisplay/
XYZ]:BPErrorMenuItemNotCoveredByPrivilege: ‘AxMenuItemDisplay’ ‘XYZ’ is not covered by privilege: XYZ
(USR) [YourModule]

Based on this error message, which recommendation should you make to the developer?

A.    Add the XYZ display menu item to the Entry Points of a new or existing Security Privilege in the Your Module model.
B.    Set the Create Permissions and Delete Permissions properties on the XYZ display menu item.
C.    Add the XYZ display menu item to the Entry Points of an extension of an existing Security Privilege in the Application Suite model.
D.    Set the Linked Permission Type property to Form, and the Linked Permission Object property to thename of the form on the XYZ display menu item.

Answer: A
Explanation:
BPErrorMenuItemNotCoveredByPrivilege: Only the system administrator role can access this form

QUESTION 27
You are working in a Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations environment that has an existingform named ModifyData and a display menu item named ModifyData1, which opens ModifyData. Youcreate a second menu item named ModifyData2 that also opens ModifyData.

Aprivilegenamed ModifyData1View has the ModifyData1 menu item as an entry point with Read access.

There is also a privilege named ModifyData1Maintain that has the ModifyData1 menu item as an entry point, with the Access Level property set to Delete. You create a new privilege named ModifyData2View and add the ModifyData2 menu item as an entry point. You set the Access Level property to Read on the ModifyData2 entry point.

You need to create a new duty named DataManager so that a role with this duty can delete data from ModifyData when accessed through ModifyData1 and read data on the ModifyData form when accessedthrough ModifyData2.

What should you do to achieve this goal?

A.    Grant the ModifyData1Maintain privilege and the ModifyData2View privilege to the DataManager duty.
B.    Grant the ModifyData2View privilege to the DataManager duty.
C.    Grant the ModifyData1Maintain privilege to the DataManager duty.
D.    Grant the ModifyData1View privilege and the ModifyData2View privilege to the DataManager duty.

Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which of the Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations application stack provides financial and human resources management functionality?

A.    Application Suite
B.    Application Object
C.    Application Foundation
D.    Application Platform

Answer: A
Explanation:
Most of the functionality we associate with Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations is added in the Application Suite. Specific examples include the financial management, inventory or warehouse management, human resources management or the fleet management scenario.

QUESTION 29
You are creating a custom lookup form to look up records in a table.

You want to provide multiple views of the table on the form.

Which form pattern should you apply?

A.    Details Master with Standard Tabs
B.    Simple List
C.    Lookup with Tabs
D.    Dialog – Advanced Selection

Answer: C
Explanation:
Lookup basic?This is the basic Lookup pattern that has just one list or tree, and also optional customfilters and actions.
Lookup w/tabs?This Lookup pattern is used when more than oneview of the lookup can be madeavailable to the user. Tab captions aren’t shown. Instead, the tab is selected through a combo box.
Lookup w/preview?This more advanced Lookup pattern enables a preview of the current record in thelookup grid.

QUESTION 30
You are writing a method to update the Customer reference field on a Sales order table record. You begin by writing the following code:

class ExampleClass
{
/// <summary>
/// Update the Customer reference field on the Sales orders table.
/// </summary>
/// <param name = “_salesId”>
/// Sales order to update
/// </param>
/// <param name = “_customerRef”>
/// Updated Customer reference value
/// </param>
public static void updateSalesTableCustomerReference(SalesId _salesId,
CustRef _customerRef)
{
SalesTable salesTable;
}
}

Which statement will complete the method?

A.    salesTable = SalesTable::find(_salesId);
salesTable.CustomerRef = _customerRef;
salesTable.update();
B.    update_recordset salesTable
setting CustomerRef=_customerRef
where salesTable.salesid==_salesId;
C.    salesTable = SalesTable::find(_salesId, true); salesTable.CustomerRef = _customerRef;
salesTable.update();
D.    update_recordset salesTable
setting SalesId = _salesId
where salesTable.CustomerRef == _customerRef;

Answer: C

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QUESTION 21
You are processing a customer payment and want to generate a payment line based on due date so that you can search the invoice lines that meet selected search criteria.
What should you do?

A.    Use Settlement
B.    Use payment transfer.
C.    Use Manual Payment Journal
D.    Use Payment proposal

Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Your company decides to use Microsoft Dynamics AX Financials for consolidated financial reporting instead of using Management Reporter.
You need to configure a new legal entity for the consolidated financial transactions.
What must you do to enable the subsidiary company’s transactions to consolidate into the new legal entity that you are creating?

A.    Enable the “Use for financial consolidation process” check box in both the consolidated and subsidiary companies.
B.    Enable the “Use for financial consolidation process” check box in the subsidiary company.
C.    Enable the “Use for financial elimination process” check box in the consolidation company.
D.    Enable the “Use for financial consolidation process” check box for the consolidated company.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa549110.aspx

QUESTION 23
You want a 2% bank charge to appear by default on all electronic methods of payment.
What do you need to set up and then link to the method of payment?

A.    terms of payment
B.    payment specification
C.    payment fee
D.    payment control

Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which form should you use to assign a chart of accounts to a legal entity?

A.    Configure account structures
B.    General ledger parameters
C.    Ledger
D.    Legal entities

Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Where do you define the Main account information for bank and cash subledger journal account transactions?

A.    On the Bank document posting profiles form
B.    On the Bank transaction groups form
C.    On the Bank groups form
D.    On the Bank accounts form

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa619635.aspx

QUESTION 26
The accounts receivable manager runs a foreign currency revaluation on February 5. The foreign currency revaluation has a considered date of January 31.
The period closing for this revaluation is set for January 31. What is the result of this invoice revaluation if the invoice is settled on February 3?

A.    The revaluation includes only documents that have settled amounts on the considered date.
B.    The revaluation excludes documents that have been settled on the considered date.
C.    The revaluation includes all documents, including unposted, that have open amounts on the considered date.
D.    The revaluation includes all documents, excluding unposted, that have open amounts on the considered date.

Answer: D

QUESTION 27
You are setting up taxes on customer invoices.
You need to report a sales tax on the invoice, as and when it is settled, to the tax authorities.

271

When the customer settles the invoice with the second payment of 625 USD, you report the remaining sales tax.
What should you set up in this situation?

A.    Withholding sales tax
B.    Sales tax exemption
C.    Standard sales tax
D.    Conditional sales taxes

Answer: D

QUESTION 28
You are an accounting manager, your company has a new customer, A ledger account must be set up to record the sales tax liability and payments made to the taxing authority in the customer’s specific region automatically.
Which two account groups should you choose for these ledger accounts? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Settlement account
B.    Sales-tax receivable
C.    Sales-tax payable
D.    Use-txpayable

Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
Your company is using basic budgeting and is planning to configure budget control.
You need to identify the additional configuration that is needed.
Which three components will already be configured as s part of the basic Budgeting setup? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    budget models
B.    budget exchange rates
C.    over budget permissions
D.    budget cycles
E.    documents and journals

Answer: ABD
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh242128.aspx

QUESTION 30
You are the accounts receivable manager at you company. The company receives an advance of 10,000 USD against a sales order from the customer.
The tax authorities require the company to re-port the sales tax on the advance amount, even though the sales have not been made.
You need to ensure that this requirement is fulfilled.
What should you do?

A.    Report sales tax on prepayment against a prepayment voucher.
B.    Report sales tax exemption against a prepayment voucher.
C.    Report withholding sales tax against a prepayment voucher.
D.    Report conditional sales tax against a prepayment voucher.

Answer: A

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You company wants its top 10customers in August to receive a best-selling product at a reduce price.
You need to establish a price.
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QUESTION 41
Which policy statement will be applied to neighbor 172.16.4.2?

A.    policy-statement all and policy -statement agg
B.    policy-statement agg
C.    policy-statement all and policy -statement atat
D.    policy-statement atat

Answer: A

QUESTION 42
You are attempting to configure BGP peering to a new service provider. The BGP peering state is stuck in the active state.
What are two reasons for this happening? (Choose two)

A.    the local autonomous system number is not configure
B.    the origin ID is not configure
C.    The peer IP address is incorrect
D.    The peer autonomous number is incorrect.

Answer: C

QUESTION 43
You manage your company enterprises network using EX series switches. Your company wants to use Q in Q tunneling to connect remote customer sites together. Which statement is correct about the scenario?

A.    You must enable L2PTto tunnel layer 2 protocol traffic
B.    The outside layer 2 frame is popped by the penultimate switch
C.    Customer traffic is tunneled through the network using the C VLAN ID
D.    The default Ethernet value is 0x9100

Answer: A

QUESTION 44
Which two statements about VSTP on EX series switches are connect? (Choose two)

A.    All VLANS beyond the first 64 will not be supported by VSTP
B.    VSTP automatically assigns each VLAN to one spanning tree instances
C.    VSTP must be used to intemperate with MVRP
D.    VSTP must be used to intemperate with PVST+

Answer: BD

QUESTION 45
Referring to the exhibit, R2 is exporting the route for server1 as a Type 2 external route and R6 is exporting the route for server 1 as a type 1 external route in OSPF.
Which path is taken to reach server-1 from user1?

A.    R1>R3>R6
B.    R1>R2
C.    R1>R4>R6
D.    R1>R2>R4>R6

Answer: D

QUESTION 46
Which statement is correct regarding the isolated ports?

A.    isolated ports are trunk ports that have layer 2 connectivity with all other ports
B.    isolated port are access ports that only have layer 2 connectivity with other isolated port
C.    isolated port are access port that only have layer 2 connectivity with promosious ports
D.    isolated port are trunk ports that have layer 2 connectivity with all community ports

Answer: C

QUESTION 47
Your network provider supports multicast traffic but your provider network does not. You want to allow multicast hosts outside of your network to receive multicast traffic sourced within your network.

How would you satisfy this requirement?

A.    Use MSDP peering with your provider.
B.    Use AutoVPN to connect to the remote hosts.
C.    Use an MP-BGP session to your provider to pass multicast traffic.
D.    Use automatic multicast tunnel gateway at the edge of your network.

Answer: D

QUESTION 48
Click the exhibit.

481

Referring to the exhibit, traffic handled by the s-1 scheduler is out of profile. Assuming bandwidth is available in this scenario, which statement is correct?

A.    Traffic handled by the s-1 scheduler is serviced immediately after traffic being serviced by the s-4 scheduler.
B.    Traffic handled by the s-1 scheduler is serviced immediately before traffic being serviced by the s-4 scheduler.
C.    Traffic handled by the s-1 scheduler is serviced immediately before traffic being serviced by the s-2 scheduler.
D.    Traffic handled by the s-1 scheduler is serviced immediately after traffic being serviced by the s-2 scheduler.

Answer: D

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