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QUESTION 31
How many links are there between a second-generation IOM (Cisco UCS 2204 or 2208) and a third- generation half-width blade (Cisco UCS B200 M3 or B22 M3) in a Cisco UCS system?

A.    1
B.    2
C.    4
D.    8

Answer: C

QUESTION 32
Which policy would you change to form a port channel between a Cisco UCS 6248 and a Cisco UCS 2208?

A.    link aggregation policy
B.    chassis discovery policy
C.    IOM connection policy
D.    link discovery policy

Answer: B

QUESTION 33
The Cisco UCS 6200 Series Fabric Interconnects offer a new feature that allows dynamic port allocation for all of the 10 Gigabit Ethernet interfaces. What are these ports called?

A.    universal ports
B.    flex ports
C.    unified ports
D.    converged ports

Answer: C

QUESTION 34
In which situation would you be required to change a Cisco UCS system from end-host mode to switching mode?

A.    Design requirements call for the use of fabric failover.
B.    Fabric interconnect is connecting to disjoint Layer 2 networks upstream.
C.    HSRP routers are directly connected to the fabric interconnect.
D.    Upstream Cisco Nexus 5000 is configured for vPC.

Answer: C

QUESTION 35
Drag and Drop Question
Drag the characteristic on the left to the appropriate Cisco UCS adapter on the right, where the adapter supports that characterishtic.

351

Answer:

352

QUESTION 36
Drag and Drop Question
The Cisco Integrated Management Controller on a Cisco Unified Computing B-Series server provides a number of features. Drag the functionality on the left to the appropriate feature on the right.

361

Answer:

362

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QUESTION 41
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, and FHRP services, a trouble ticket has been operated indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to Isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
On which device is the fault condition located?

A.    R1
B.    R2
C.    R3
D.    R4
E.    DSW1
F.    DSW2
G.    ASW1
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QUESTION 31
Which command does a network engineer use to verify the spanning-tree status for VLAN 10?

A.    switch# show spanning-tree vlan 10
B.    switch# show spanning-tree bridge
C.    switch# show spanning-tree brief
D.    switch# show spanning-tree summary
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QUESTION 21
Which statement is true about the PPP Session Phase of PPPoE?

A.    PPP options are negotiated and authentication is not performed.
Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 3 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
B.    PPP options are not negotiated and authentication is performed.
Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 4 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
C.    PPP options are automatically enabled and authorization is performed.
Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be encrypted over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
D.    PPP options are negotiated and authentication is performed.
Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa92/configuration/vpn/asa-vpn-cli/vpn-pppoe.html

QUESTION 22
Which type of traffic does DHCP snooping drop?

A.    discover messages
B.    DHCP messages where the source MAC and client MAC do not match
C.    traffic from a trusted DHCP server to client
D.    DHCP messages where the destination MAC and client MAC do not match

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12-2SX/configuration/guide/book/snoodhcp.html

QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. Which command only announces the 1.2.3.0/24 network out of FastEthernet 0/0?

231

A.    distribute list 1 out
B.    distribute list 1 out FastEthernet0/0
C.    distribute list 2 out
D.    distribute list 2 out FastEthernet0/0

Answer: D
Explanation:
Access list 2 is more specific, allowing only 1.2.3.0/24, whereas access list 1 permits all 1.0.0.0/8 networks. This question also asks us to apply this distribute list only to the outbound direction of the fast Ethernet 0/0 interface, so the correct command is “distribute list 2 out FastEthernet0/0.”

QUESTION 24
Which prefix is matched by the command ip prefix-list name permit 10.8.0.0/16 ge 24 le 24?

A.    10.9.1.0/24
B.    10.8.0.0/24
C.    10.8.0.0/16
D.    10.8.0.0/23

Answer: B
Explanation:
With prefix lists, the ge 24 term means greater than or equal to a /24 and the le 24 means less than or equal to /24, so only a /24 is both greater than or equal to 24 and less than or equal to 24. This translates to any prefix in the 10.8.x.0/24 network, where X is any value in the 0-255 range.
Only the choice of 10.8.0.0.24 matches this.

QUESTION 25
Router A and Router B are configured with IPv6 addressing and basic routing capabilities using OSPFv3. The networks that are advertised from Router A do not show up in Router B’s routing table. After debugging IPv6 packets, the message “not a router” is found in the output.
Why is the routing information not being learned by Router B?

A.    OSPFv3 timers were adjusted for fast convergence.
B.    The networks were not advertised properly under the OSPFv3 process.
C.    An IPv6 traffic filter is blocking the networks from being learned via the Router B interface that is connected to Router A.
D.    IPv6 unicast routing is not enabled on Router A or Router B.

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/ipv6/command/reference/ipv6_book/ipv6_16.html

QUESTION 26
After you review the output of the command show ipv6 interface brief, you see that several IPv6 addresses have the 16-bit hexadecimal value of “FFFE” inserted into the address.
Based on this information, what do you conclude about these IPv6 addresses?

A.    IEEE EUI-64 was implemented when assigning IPv6 addresses on the device.
B.    The addresses were misconfigured and will not function as intended.
C.    IPv6 addresses containing “FFFE” indicate that the address is reserved for multicast.
D.    The IPv6 universal/local flag (bit 7) was flipped.
E.    IPv6 unicast forwarding was enabled, but IPv6 Cisco Express Forwarding was disabled.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Extended Unique Identifier (EUI), as per RFC2373, allows a host to assign iteslf a unique 64-Bit IP Version 6 interface identify them EUI-64). This feature is a key benefit over IPv4 as it eliminates the need of manual configuration or DHCP as in the world of IPv4. The IPv6 EUI-64 format address is obtained through the 48-bit MAC address. The Mac address is first separated into two 24-bits, with one being OUI (Organizationally Unique Identifier) and the other being NIC specific. The 16-bit 0xFFFE is then inserted between these two 24-bits to for the 64-bit EUI address. IEEE has chosen FFFE as a reserved value which can only appear in EUI-64 generated from the EUI-48 MAC address.
https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/100566/understanding-ipv6-eui-64-bit-address

QUESTION 27
A packet capture log indicates that several router solicitation messages were sent from a local host on the IPv6 segment. What is the expected acknowledgment and its usage?

A.    Router acknowledgment messages will be forwarded upstream, where the DHCP server will allocate addresses to the local host.
B.    Routers on the IPv6 segment will respond with an advertisement that provides an external path from the local subnet, as well as certain data, such as prefix discovery.
C.    Duplicate Address Detection will determine if any other local host is using the same IPv6 address for communication with the IPv6 routers on the segment.
D.    All local host traffic will be redirected to the router with the lowest ICMPv6 signature, which is statically defined by the network administrator.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Router Advertisements (RA) are sent in response to router solicitation messages. Router solicitation messages, which have a value of 133 in the Type field of the ICMP packet header, are sent by hosts at system startup so that the host can immediately autoconfigure without needing to wait for the next scheduled RA message. Given that router solicitation messages are usually sent by hosts at system startup (the host does not have a configured unicast address), the source address in router solicitation messages is usually the unspecified Ipv6 address (0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0). If the host has a configured unicast address, the unicast address of the interface sending the router solicitation message is used as the source address in the message. The destination address in router solicitation messages is the all-routers multicast address with a scope of the link. When an RA is sent in response to a router solicitation, the destination address in the RA message is the unicast address of the source of the router solicitation message. RA messages typically include the following information:
One or more onlink Ipv6 prefixes that nodes on the local link can use to automatically configure their Ipv6 addresses
Lifetime information for each prefix included in the advertisement
Sets of flags that indicate the type of autoconfiguration (stateless or stateful) that can be completed
Default router information (whether the router sending the advertisement should be used as a default router and, if so, the amount of time (in seconds) the router should be used as a default router)
Additional information for hosts, such as the hop limit and MTU a host should use in packets that it originates
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/ipv6/configuration/guide/12_4t/ipv6_12_4t_book/ip6-addrg_bsc_con.html

QUESTION 28
A user is having issues accessing file shares on a network. The network engineer advises the user to open a web browser, input a prescribed IP address, and follow the instructions.
After doing this, the user is able to access company shares.
Which type of remote access did the engineer enable?

A.    EZVPN
B.    IPsec VPN client access
C.    VPDN client access
D.    SSL VPN client access

Answer: D
Explanation:
The Cisco AnyConnect VPN Client provides secure SSL connections to the security appliance for remote users. Without a previously installed client, remote users enter the IP address in their browser of an interface configured to accept SSL VPN connections. Unless the security appliance is configured to redirect http:// requests to https://, users must enter the URL in the form https://<address>.
After entering the URL, the browser connects to that interface and displays the login screen. If the user satisfies the login and authentication, and the security appliance identifies the user as requiring the client, it downloads the client that matches the operating system of the remote computer. After downloading, the client installs and configures itself, establishes a secure SSL connection and either remains or uninstalls itself (depending on the security appliance configuration) when the connection terminates.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/asa-5500-x-series-next-generation-firewalls/100936-asa8x-split-tunnel-anyconnect-config.html

QUESTION 29
Which Cisco IOS VPN technology leverages IPsec, mGRE, dynamic routing protocol, NHRP, and Cisco Express Forwarding?

A.    FlexVPN
B.    DMVPN
C.    GETVPN
D.    Cisco Easy VPN

Answer: B
Explanation:
Dynamic Multipoint Virtual Private Network (DMVPN) is a dynamic tunneling form of a virtual private network (VPN) supported on Cisco IOS-based routers and Unix-like Operating Systems based on the standard protocols, GRE, NHRP and Ipsec. This DMVPN provides the capability for creating a dynamic-mesh VPN network without having to pre-configure (static) all possible tunnel end-point peers, including Ipsec (Internet Protocol Security) and ISAKMP (Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol) peers. DMVPN is initially configured to build out a hub-and-spoke network by statically configuring the hubs (VPN headends) on the spokes, no change in the configuration on the hub is required to accept new spokes. Using this initial hub- and-spoke network, tunnels between spokes can be dynamically built on demand (dynamic-mesh) without additional configuration on the hubs or spokes. This dynamic-mesh capability alleviates the need for any load on the hub to route data between the spoke networks.
DMVPN is combination of the following technologies:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dynamic_Multipoint_Virtual_Private_Network

QUESTION 30
A network engineer is configuring a solution to allow failover of HSRP nodes during maintenance windows, as an alternative to powering down the active router and letting the network respond accordingly. Which action will allow for manual switching of HSRP nodes?

A.    Track the up/down state of a loopback interface and shut down this interface during maintenance.
B.    Adjust the HSRP priority without the use of preemption.
C.    Disable and enable all active interfaces on the active HSRP node.
D.    Enable HSRPv2 under global configuration, which allows for maintenance mode.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The standby track command allows you to specify another interface on the router for the HSRP process to monitor in order to alter the HSRP priority for a given group. If the line protocol of the specified interface goes down, the HSRP priority is reduced. This means that another HSRP router with higher priority can become the active router if that router has standby preempt enabled. Loopback interfaces can be tracked, so when this interface is shut down the HSRP priority for that router will be lowered and the other HSRP router will then become the active one.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/hot-standby-router-protocol-hsrp/13780-6.html

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QUESTION 31
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QUESTION 41
Cisco Unified Communications Manager is configured with CAC for a maximum of 10 voice calls.
Which action routes the 11th call through the PSTN?

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B.    Configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager AAR.
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QUESTION 31
Which type of IOS Conference bridge requires all users to use the same video format in order to participate in a video conference?

A.    Ad Hoc Conferencing
B.    Homogenous Conferencing
C.    Heterogenous Conferencing
D.    Guaranteed Audio Video Conferencing
E.    Meet-Me Conferencing

Answer: B

QUESTION 32
Which two of the following DSPs can be used in heterogenous conferencing to achieve the required trans- sizing and transcoding functionality? (Choose two.)

A.    PVDM3-256
B.    PVDM2-256
C.    PVDM-192
D.    PVDM3-32
E.    PVDM3-192
F.    PVDM2-128

Answer: AE

QUESTION 33
Which of the following simplifies and enhances conference resource management?

A.    Cisco Telepresence Server
B.    Cisco Telepresence MCU
C.    Cisco Telepresence MSE 8000
D.    Cisco IOS routers with packet voice/data module (PVDM)
E.    Cisco Telepresence Conductor

Answer: E
Explanation:
http://www.secureitstore.com/datasheets/Collaboration/Cisco-TelePresence-Conductor_DS.pdf

QUESTION 34
What is the maximum number of 1080p30 HD Conference Participants if an MSE 8000 has four MSE8710 blades clustered?

A.    48
B.    180
C.    720
D.    800

Answer: A

QUESTION 35
Which route pattern wildcard character is used to terminate the interdigit timeout?

A.    $
B.    !
C.    #
D.    .

Answer: C

QUESTION 36
When a call is attempted during a particular time of day, what determines the partitions where calling devices search?

A.    time schedules
B.    calling periods
C.    dial schedules
D.    time periods

Answer: A

QUESTION 37
When configuring an H.323 gateway, which configuration option can be used to set whether an incoming call is considered off the network (OffNet) or on the network (OnNet)?

A.    call classification
B.    call location
C.    device pool
D.    signaling port

Answer: A

QUESTION 38
When local route groups are used and a user dials 918005551212, what component is ultimately used to route the digits to the local gateway?

A.    The route list applied to the route pattern
B.    The device pool of the calling device
C.    The translation pattern
D.    The gateway or route list associated with the +.! route pattern

Answer: B

QUESTION 39
You are performing route pattern configuration. You need to ensure that internal extensions are automatically expanded to full external phone numbers for calling line information on outgoing calls.
What should you use?

A.    calling extension expansion
B.    called number expansion
C.    external number mask of the called party
D.    external phone number mask of the calling party

Answer: D

QUESTION 40
The CSS on a line includes the partitions 911, internal and local. The CSS on the device includes the partitions 911, internal, local and long distance. Which CSS will be used if the phone user dials a local number?

A.    The device CSS will be used since the device CSS is always used first on an IP phone.
B.    Since the dialed digits are a match to a partition is in both Calling Search Spaces the call will use both matched partitions in both Calling Search Spaces in a round-robin format.
C.    If there is both a line and device CSS the line device will only be used.
D.    The line and device CSSs will be combined and the device CSS will take precedence.
E.    The line and device CSSs will be combined and the line CSS will take precedence.

Answer: E

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QUESTION 31
After several passes with a malware removal program, the program keeps detecting the same malware infection after a reboot. Which of the following should be done to attempt to remove the offending malware?

A.    Run the malware removal program while disconnected from the Internet
B.    Run the malware removal program in Windows Safe Mode
C.    Reinstall the malware removal program from a trusted source
D.    Set the malware removal program to run each time the computer is rebooted

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.pcworld.com/article/243818/how_to_remove_malware_from_your_windows_pc.html

QUESTION 32
A user, Joe, calls and states every few hours he is unable to connect to the Internet for several minutes but is able to access internal sites during this time. Which of the following tools would be used to find the issue with the network connection?

A.    TRACERT
B.    NETSTAT
C.    IPCONFIG
D.    NSLOOKUP

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://support.microsoft.com/kb/162326

QUESTION 33
A technician is trying to prevent a local application from reaching the web due to security concerns. Which of the following solutions could BEST prevent the application from reaching the web? (Select TWO).

A.    Configure the workstation for a static IP
B.    Disable all wireless network connections
C.    Remove shortcuts to the application
D.    Block the application in Windows Firewall
E.    Change network location to Work
F.    Reroute the web address in HOSTS file

Answer: DF
Explanation:
Use Windows firewall to restrict an application from reaching the web. Alternatively you can also reroute the web address in the HOST file.

QUESTION 34
For the last year, a company has gathered statistics on the most common security incidents. The highest percentage deals with opening email attachments that contain malware. Which of the following would mitigate this issue without reducing productivity?

A.    Annual cyber security education
B.    Update antivirus signatures more often
C.    Block all email attachments
D.    Install an IPS on each workstation

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://www.aps.anl.gov/Safety_and_Training/Training/Courses/esh223/start.html

QUESTION 35
A company wants to ensure that the latest cyber security threats are known to the employees across the enterprise to minimize occurrences. Which of the following should be implemented?

A.    Message of the Day
B.    Email lists
C.    Company forums
D.    Regular user education

Answer: D
Explanation:
Educating user is the best way to combat security threats. After all security threats occur when a human carries it across unknowingly.

QUESTION 36
Which of the following operating systems can be upgraded directly to Windows 7 Professional by a default installation? (Select TWO).

A.    Windows 7 Home Premium
B.    Windows Vista Business
C.    Windows XP Home
D.    Windows XP Professional 64-bit
E.    Windows XP Media Center

Answer: AB
Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd772579(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 37
A technician has finished replacing the network card in a laptop and has verified full system functionality. Which of the following troubleshooting steps should the technician take NEXT?

A.    Document findings, actions, and outcomes
B.    Escalate problem to a senior technician
C.    Re-establish new theory of probable cause
D.    Perform a full system backup

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://ptgmedia.pearsoncmg.com/images/9781587132636/samplechapter/9781587132636_ch04.pdf

QUESTION 38
A technician is implementing a SOHO wireless network for Company A that shares a floor with Company B. Which of the following would BEST secure the wireless network so that only Company A employees are allowed access?

A.    Turning down the radio power level
B.    Enabling MAC filtering
C.    Setting a high encryption level
D.    Disabling the SSID broadcast

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://compnetworking.about.com/cs/wirelessproducts/qt/macaddress.htm

QUESTION 39
A technician enabled remote management on the small office WAP to manage this device from another location. Users are reporting that the WAP has changed its SSID without anyone’s knowledge. Which of the following would prevent this from occurring?

A.    Change to user MAC filtering
B.    Change default usernames and passwords
C.    Disable the SSID from broadcasting
D.    Enable static IP addresses

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://compnetworking.about.com/od/routers/ss/routerpassword.htm

QUESTION 40
A technician has configured the ability to connect to a small office server using remote desktop
from a workstation within the office. The technician has reviewed logs that show constant brute force attacks to that server from outside the network. Which of the following would prevent this from occurring?

A.    Configure the server to use a static IP
B.    Logically move the server to the DMZ
C.    Reallocate the server to a different networking closet
D.    Disable the remote desktop port

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc759006(v=ws.10).aspx

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QUESTION 31
A customer has purchased a 1TB internal hard drive. The customer would like to have it installed as a data drive in their existing system. The technician discovers there is no spare power supply connector for the new hard drive. Which of the following would enable the technician to EASILY accomplish the task? (Select TWO).

A.    Replace the existing hard drive.
B.    Replace the power supply.
C.    Remove the floppy disk.
D.    Remove the CD-ROM.
E.    Split an existing power connection.

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QUESTION 31
A clientless SSL VPN user who is connecting on a Windows Vista computer is missing the menu option for Remote Desktop Protocol on the portal web page.
Which action should you take to begin troubleshooting?

A.    Ensure that the RDP2 plug-in is installed on the VPN gateway
B.    Reboot the VPN gateway
C.    Instruct the user to reconnect to the VPN gateway
D.    Ensure that the RDP plug-in is installed on the VPN gateway

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QUESTION 21
Which CLI command can be used to reset the Cisco TelePresence System 500-32 personal video system to a factory condition?

A.    utils factory reset 2
B.    utils system factory init
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D.    xconfiguration default factory
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QUESTION 21
An end user is unable to sign into Jabber.
Assuming that network connectivity has been verified, which three settings for the end user should be checked? (Choose three.)

A.    Jabber Advanced Settings
B.    Cisco Unified Communications Manager Service Profile
C.    Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Management
D.    Cisco Unified Presence Server Advanced Settings
E.    Cisco Unified Presence Server Application Listener
F.    Cisco Unified Presence Server System Topology
G.    Jabber Version

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 22
A user reports that when they receive a voicemail on their phone, they do not receive it in their email as well.
Which feature on Cisco Unity Connection should be checked?

A.    Cisco Unified Messaging Service
B.    Enterprise Parameters
C.    Roles
D.    Message Waiting Indicators
E.    Alternate MWI

Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Many users report that there is a delay in receiving MWI notifications for voicemails.
Which two issues can cause this problem? (Choose two.)

A.    The Connection Notifier service has been stopped.
B.    Voicemail ports are not configured for MWI requests.
C.    The MWI functionality for the port groups has been disabled.
D.    Not enough MWI assigned ports are available.
E.    MWIs are in the process of synchronizing with the phone system.

Answer: DE

QUESTION 24
Users report volume issues with recordings in Cisco Unity Connection.
Which feature can be disabled to prohibit automatic volume adjustments to recordings?

A.    AGC
B.    Noise Reduction
C.    Audio Normalization
D.    VAD

Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which option allows an engineer to deploy new firmware to a single phone, while reducing possible impact?

A.    Define a new firmware load on specific device. Save configuration and reset individual device.
B.    Define load in device defaults. Reset Device Pool.
C.    Upload firmware to TFTP server. Restart TFTP service.
D.    Enable Peer Firmware Sharing.

Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which two layers are Cisco Unified Communications component layers? (Choose two.)

A.    Infrastructure layer
B.    Data link layer
C.    Network layer
D.    Endpoints layer
E.    Transport layer

Answer: AD

QUESTION 27
Which three choices are functions or features of Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)

A.    video-enabled messaging through converged networks
B.    text-to-speech, which allows access to Exchange emails from a telephone
C.    voice-enabled message navigation
D.    voice-enabled dialing to external users
E.    automated attendant capabilities
F.    automated call rerouting to agents through round robin, longest idle, or broadcast

Answer: BCE

QUESTION 28
An SCCP IP phone places a call to a SIP phone that is registered to the same Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express.
During the active call, call waiting indicates a second call is incoming to the handset, but the user decides to ignore it.
In this scenario, what is the combined total number of signaling conversations and media flows that used the SCCP phone as an endpoint?

A.    2
B.    3
C.    4
D.    5
E.    6

Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Which port is the default port for SCCP call signaling on Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A.    2000
B.    2443
C.    5060
D.    5061

Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which three choices are required for the boot process for a Cisco IP phone? (Choose three.)

A.    TFTP services
B.    DHCP services
C.    Voice VLAN
D.    Routing protocol
E.    TCP/IP
F.    PortFast

Answer: ABC

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QUESTION 31
After installing a Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller using the default settings, how often will the RRM update occur?

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B.    60 seconds
C.    300 seconds
D.    600 seconds
E.    3600 seconds
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QUESTION 31
WAN backup over the Internet is often used to provide primary connection redundancy.
Which is the most important consideration when passing corporate traffic over the public Internet?

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QUESTION 31
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QUESTION 31
What is the minimum number of fabric modules that should be installed in the Cisco Ne*js 7000 chassis for N 1 redundancy using Ml-Series line card?

A.    3
B.    4
C.    5
D.    6

Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which address and subnet combination is valid for a host assignment?

A.    172.23.175.210/15
B.    10.100.74.127/25
C.    192.168.73.223/29
D.    10.230.33.15/28

Answer: B

QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be mode based upon the output? (Choose two.)

331

A.    regular fromat WWNs are being used
B.    the command show flogl database was run
C.    the command show fcns database vsan 1 was run
D.    registered name formate WWNs are being used
E.    extended format WWNs are being used.

Answer: BE

QUESTION 34
A customer requires two separate physical pathways between multiple initiators and multiple targets.
Which technology meets this requirement on a single Cisco MDS9148 switch?

A.    zoning
B.    port security
C.    LUN masking
D.    VSANs

Answer: D

QUESTION 35
Which device does a network engineer use to break the network environment into smaller collision domains?

A.    switch
B.    router
C.    hub
D.    repeater
E.    CSU/DSU

Answer: A

QUESTION 36
An engineer must copy a new configuration to a Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch from a TFTP server.
Which two commands should be used to retain the configuration after a reboot? (Choose two.)

A.    write memory
B.    copy running-config startup-config
C.    copy tftp://10.10.1.1/my-config running-config
D.    copy tftp://10.10.1.1/my-config startup-config
E.    write erase

Answer: BC

QUESTION 37
At which layer of the OSI Model is TCP traffic encapsulated?

A.    transport
B.    data-link
C.    presentation
D.    application

Answer: A

QUESTION 38
Which two hosts are part of subnet 172.16.160.0/20? (Choose two.)

A.    172.16.168.0
B.    172.16.176.1
C.    172.16.160.255
D.    172.16.160.0
E.    172.16.176.255

Answer: AC

QUESTION 39
Which command should be used to determine which hosts are Fibre Channel targets?

A.    MDS-A# show host database
B.    MDS-A# show flogi database
C.    MDS-A# show fens database
D.    MDS-A# show host-id

Answer: C

QUESTION 40
Which two options are benefits of deploying FCoE beyond the access layer?

A.    higher throughput compared to native Fibre Channel switches.
B.    FCoE cannot be deployed beyond the access layer.
C.    reduction in equipment requirements.
D.    improved security compared to traditional Fibre Channel.
E.    increased application support.

Answer: AC

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QUESTION 41
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QUESTION 41
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QUESTION 41
Which one of the following IP addresses is the last valid host in the subnet using mask 255.255.255.224?

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B.    192.168.2.62
C.    192.168.2.61
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QUESTION 51
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database.
The database contains a Product table created by using the following definition:

511

You need to ensure that the minimum amount of disk space is used to store the data in the Product table.
What should you do?

A.    Convert all indexes to Column Store indexes.
B.    Implement Unicode Compression.
C.    Implement row-level compression.
D.    Implement page-level compression.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Incorrect Answers:
A: Only a single index is used.
B: Unicode compression supports the fixed-length nchar(n) and nvarchar(n) data types.
C: Row-level compression does not affect VARCHAR och CHAR columns.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/data-compression/data-compression
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/data-compression/page-compression-implementation
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/data-compression/row-compression-implementation

QUESTION 52
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance.
After a routine shutdown, the drive that contains tempdb fails.
You need to be able to start the SQL Server.
What should you do?

A.    Modify tempdb location in startup parameters.
B.    Start SQL Server in minimal configuration mode.
C.    Start SQL Server in single-user mode.
D.    Configure SQL Server to bypass Windows application logging.

Answer: B
Explanation:
If you have configuration problems that prevent the server from starting, you can start an instance of Microsoft SQL Server by using the minimal configuration startup option.
When you start an instance of SQL Server in minimal configuration mode, note the following:
Only a single user can connect, and the CHECKPOINT process is not executed.
Remote access and read-ahead are disabled.
Startup stored procedures do not run.
tempdb is configured at the smallest possible size.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/database-engine/configure-windows/start-sql-server-with-minimal-configuration

QUESTION 53
You administer a single server that contains a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 default instance.
You plan to install a new application that requires the deployment of a database on the server. The application login requires sysadmin permissions.
You need to ensure that the application login is unable to access other production databases.
What should you do?

A.    Use the SQL Server default instance and configure an affinity mask.
B.    Install a new named SQL Server instance on the server.
C.    Use the SQL Server default instance and enable Contained Databases.
D.    Install a new default SQL Server instance on the server.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/sql-server/install/work-with-multiple-versions-and-instances-of-sql-server

QUESTION 54
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Enterprise Edition server that uses 64 cores.
You discover performance issues when large amounts of data are written to tables under heavy system load.
You need to limit the number of cores that handle I/O.
What should you configure?

A.    Processor affinity
B.    Lightweight pooling
C.    Max worker threads
D.    I/O affinity

Answer: D
Explanation:
The affinity Input-Output (I/O) mask Server Configuration Option.
To carry out multitasking, Microsoft Windows 2000 and Windows Server 2003 sometimes move process threads among different processors. Although efficient from an operating system point of view, this activity can reduce Microsoft SQL Server performance under heavy system loads, as each processor cache is repeatedly reloaded with data. Assigning processors to specific threads can improve performance under these conditions by eliminating processor reloads; such an association between a thread and a processor is called processor affinity.
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms189629.aspx

QUESTION 55
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance that contains a financial database hosted on a storage area network (SAN).
The financial database has the following characteristics:

– A data file of 2 terabytes is located on a dedicated LUN (drive D).
– A transaction log of 10 GB is located on a dedicated LUN (drive E).
– Drive D has 1 terabyte of free disk space.
– Drive E has 5 GB of free disk space.

The database is continually modified by users during business hours from Monday through Friday between 09:00 hours and 17:00 hours. Five percent of the existing data is modified each day.
The Finance department loads large CSV files into a number of tables each business day at 11:15 hours and 15:15 hours by using the BCP or BULK INSERT commands. Each data load adds 3 GB of data to the database.
These data load operations must occur in the minimum amount of time.
A full database backup is performed every Sunday at 10:00 hours. Backup operations will be performed every two hours (11:00, 13:00, 15:00, and 17:00) during business hours.
You need to ensure that your backup will continue if any invalid checksum is encountered.
Which backup option should you use?

A.    STANDBY
B.    Differential
C.    FULL
D.    CHECKSUM
E.    BULK_LOGGED
F.    CONTINUE_AFTER_ERROR
G.    SIMPLE
H.    DBO_ONLY
I.    COPY_ONLY
J.    SKIP
K.    RESTART
L.    Transaction log
M.    NO_CHECKSUM
N.    NORECOVERY

Answer: F
Explanation:
The CONTINUE_AFTER_ERROR option, of the Transact-SQL BACKUP command, instructs BACKUP to continue despite encountering errors such as invalid checksums or torn pages.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/backup-transact-sql

QUESTION 56
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance that contains a financial database hosted on a storage area network (SAN).
The financial database has the following characteristics:

– A data file of 2 terabytes is located on a dedicated LUN (drive D).
– A transaction log of 10 GB is located on a dedicated LUN (drive E).
– Drive D has 1 terabyte of free disk space.
– Drive E has 5 GB of free disk space.

The database is continually modified by users during business hours from Monday through Friday between 09:00 hours and 17:00 hours. Five percent of the existing data is modified each day.
The Finance department loads large CSV files into a number of tables each business day at 11:15 hours and 15:15 hours by using the BCP or BULK INSERT commands. Each data load adds 3 GB of data to the database.
These data load operations must occur in the minimum amount of time.
A full database backup is performed every Sunday at 10:00 hours. Backup operations will be performed every two hours (11:00, 13:00, 15:00, and 17:00) during business hours.
On Wednesday at 10:00 hours, the development team requests you to refresh the database on a development server by using the most recent version.
You need to perform a full database backup that will be restored on the development server.
Which backup option should you use?

A.    NORECOVERY
B.    FULL
C.    NO_CHECKSUM
D.    CHECKSUM
E.    Differential
F.    BULK_LOGGED
G.    STANDBY
H.    RESTART
I.    SKIP
J.    Transaction log
K.    DBO ONLY
L.    COPY_ONLY
M.    SIMPLE
N.    CONTINUE AFTER ERROR

Answer: L
Explanation:
COPY_ONLY specifies that the backup is a copy-only backup, which does not affect the normal sequence of backups. A copy-only backup is created independently of your regularly scheduled, conventional backups. A copy-only backup does not affect your overall backup and restore procedures for the database.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/backup-transact-sql

QUESTION 57
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance that contains a financial database hosted on a storage area network (SAN).
The financial database has the following characteristics:

– A data file of 2 terabytes is located on a dedicated LUN (drive D).
– A transaction log of 10 GB is located on a dedicated LUN (drive E).
– Drive D has 1 terabyte of free disk space.
– Drive E has 5 GB of free disk space.

The database is continually modified by users during business hours from Monday through Friday between 09:00 hours and 17:00 hours. Five percent of the existing data is modified each day.
The Finance department loads large CSV files into a number of tables each business day at 11:15 hours and 15:15 hours by using the BCP or BULK INSERT commands. Each data load adds 3 GB of data to the database.
These data load operations must occur in the minimum amount of time.
A full database backup is performed every Sunday at 10:00 hours. Backup operations will be performed every two hours (11:00, 13:00, 15:00, and 17:00) during business hours.
You need to ensure that the minimum amount of data is lost.
Which recovery model should the database use?

A.    NORECOVERY
B.    FULL
C.    NO_CHECKSUM
D.    CHECKSUM
E.    Differential
F.    BULK_LOGGED
G.    STANDBY
H.    RESTART
I.    SKIP
J.    Transaction log
K.    DBO ONLY
L.    COPY_ONLY
M.    SIMPLE
N.    CONTINUE AFTER ERROR

Answer: B
Explanation:
The full recovery model requires log backups. No work is lost due to a lost or damaged data file. Can recover to a specific point in time, assuming that your backups are complete up to that point in time.
Incorrect Answers:
F: The bulk logged recovery model can recover to the end of any backup. Point-in-time recovery is not supported.
M: The simple recovery model can recover only to the end of a backup.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/backup-restore/recovery-models-sql-server

QUESTION 58
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance that contains a financial database hosted on a storage area network (SAN).
The financial database has the following characteristics:

– A data file of 2 terabytes is located on a dedicated LUN (drive D).
– A transaction log of 10 GB is located on a dedicated LUN (drive E).
– Drive D has 1 terabyte of free disk space.
– Drive E has 5 GB of free disk space.

The database is continually modified by users during business hours from Monday through Friday between 09:00 hours and 17:00 hours. Five percent of the existing data is modified each day.
The Finance department loads large CSV files into a number of tables each business day at 11:15 hours and 15:15 hours by using the BCP or BULK INSERT commands. Each data load adds 3 GB of data to the database.
These data load operations must occur in the minimum amount of time.
A full database backup is performed every Sunday at 10:00 hours. Backup operations will be performed every two hours (11:00, 13:00, 15:00, and 17:00) during business hours.
You need to ensure that the backup size is as small as possible.
Which backup should you perform every two hours?

A.    NORECOVERY
B.    FULL
C.    NO_CHECKSUM
D.    CHECKSUM
E.    Differential
F.    BULK_LOGGED
G.    STANDBY
H.    RESTART
I.    SKIP
J.    Transaction log
K.    DBO ONLY
L.    COPY_ONLY
M.    SIMPLE
N.    CONTINUE AFTER ERROR

Answer: J
Explanation:
Minimally, you must have created at least one full backup before you can create any log backups. After that, the transaction log can be backed up at any time unless the log is already being backed up.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/backup-restore/transaction-log-backups-sql-server

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