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QUESTION 11
By default, what are two options that are presented to callers for forwarded calls into a Cisco Unity Connection system? (Choose two.)

A.    Log in to their mailbox.
B.    Listen to the opening greeting.
C.    Leave a message if forwarder has a mailbox.
D.    Enter user ID and PIN.
E.    Log in to remote mailbox.

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QUESTION 11
Scenario:
There are two call control systems in this item. The Cisco UCM is controlling the DX650. the Cisco Jabber for Windows Client, and the 9971 Video IP Phone. The Cisco VCS is controlling the SX20. the Cisco Telepresence MCU. and the Cisco Jabber Telepresence for Windows.

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QUESTION 11
Which of these determines the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server to which an IP phone registers?

A.    The Cisco Unified Communications Manager group is configured with a Device Pool that designates the primary, secondary, and tertiary servers in the group.
B.    Each IP phone is configured with a Device Pool containing the Cisco Unified Communications Manager group that determines which server the IP phone will use as its primary, secondary, and tertiary server.
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QUESTION 11
In which of the following locations would a technician go to show file extensions?

A.    Security Center
B.    Folder Options
C.    Display
D.    System

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QUESTION 1
Which is an endpoint supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A.    CMA Clients
B.    Jabber Video
C.    Immersive Telepresence endpoints
D.    Legacy H.323 endpoints

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QUESTION 188
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You deploy a new DHCP server that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to retrieve the list of the authorized DHCP servers.
Which command should you run?

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QUESTION 11
What features can protect the data plane? (Choose three.)

A.    policing
B.    ACLs
C.    IPS
D.    antispoofing
E.    QoS
F.    DHCP-snooping

Answer: BDF
Explanation:
Data Plane Security
Data plane security can be implemented using the following features:
Access control lists
Access control lists (ACLs) perform packet filtering to control which packets move through the network and where.
Antispoofing
ACLs can be used as an antispoofing mechanism that discards traffic that has an invalid source address.
Layer 2 security features
Cisco Catalyst switches have integrated features to help secure the Layer 2 infrastructure.
ACLs
ACLs are used to secure the data plane in a variety of ways, including the following:
Block unwanted traffic or users
ACLs can filter incoming or outgoing packets on an interface, controlling access based on source addresses, destination addresses, or user authentication.
Reduce the chance of DoS attacks
ACLs can be used to specify whether traffic from hosts, networks, or users can access the network. The TCP intercept feature can also be configured to prevent servers from being flooded with requests for a connection.
Mitigate spoofing attacks
ACLs enable security practitioners to implement recommended practices to mitigate spoofing attacks.
Provide bandwidth control
ACLs on a slow link can prevent excess traffic.
Classify traffic to protect other planes
ACLs can be applied on vty lines (management plane).
ACLs can control routing updates being sent, received, or redistributed (control plane).
Antispoofing
Implementing the IETF best current practice 38 (BCP38) and RFC 2827 ingress traffic filtering renders the use of invalid source IP addresses ineffective, forcing attacks to be initiated from valid, reachable IP addresses which could be traced to the originator of an attack.
Features such as Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding (uRPF) can be used to complement the antispoofing strategy.
Layer 2 Data Plane Protection
The following are Layer 2 security tools integrated into the Cisco Catalyst switches:
Port security
Prevents MAC address spoofing and MAC address flooding attacks DHCP snooping
Prevents client attacks on the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server and switch Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI)
Adds security to ARP by using the DHCP snooping table to minimize the impact of ARP poisoning and spoofing attacks
IP source guard
Prevents IP spoofing addresses by using the DHCP snooping table

QUESTION 12
How many crypto map sets can you apply to a router interface?

A.    3
B.    2
C.    4
D.    1

Answer: D

QUESTION 13
What is the transition order of STP states on a Layer 2 switch interface?

A.    listening, learning, blocking, forwarding, disabled
B.    listening, blocking, learning, forwarding, disabled
C.    blocking, listening, learning, forwarding, disabled
D.    forwarding, listening, learning, blocking, disabled

Answer: C
Explanation:
The ports on a switch with enabled Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) are in one of the following five port states.
Blocking
Listening
Learning
Forwarding
Disabled
A switch does not enter any of these port states immediately except the blocking state. When the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is enabled, every switch in the network starts in the blocking state and later changes to the listening and learning states.
Blocking State
The Switch Ports will go into a blocking state at the time of election process, when a switch receives a BPDU on a port that indicates a better path to the Root Switch (Root Bridge), and if a port is not a Root Port or a Designated Port.
A port in the blocking state does not participate in frame forwarding and also discards frames received from the attached network segment. During blocking state, the port is only listening to and processing BPDUs on its interfaces. After 20 seconds, the switch port changes from the blocking state to the listening state.
Listening State
After blocking state, a Root Port or a Designated Port will move to a listening state. All other ports will remain in a blocked state. During the listening state the port discards frames received from the attached network segment and it also discards frames switched from another port for forwarding. At this state, the port receives BPDUs from the network segment and directs them to the switch system module for processing. After 15 seconds, the switch port moves from the listening state to the learning state.
Learning State
A port changes to learning state after listening state. During the learning state, the port is listening for and processing BPDUs . In the listening state, the port begins to process user frames and start updating the MAC address table. But the user frames are not forwarded to the destination. After 15 seconds, the switch port moves from the learning state to the forwarding state.
Forwarding State
A port in the forwarding state forwards frames across the attached network segment. In a forwarding state, the port will process BPDUs , update its MAC Address table with frames that it receives, and forward user traffic through the port. Forwarding State is the normal state. Data and configuration messages are passed through the port, when it is in forwarding state.
Disabled State
A port in the disabled state does not participate in frame forwarding or the operation of STP because a port in the disabled state is considered non-operational.

QUESTION 14
Which sensor mode can deny attackers inline?

A.    IPS
B.    fail-close
C.    IDS
D.    fail-open

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which options are filtering options used to display SDEE message types?

A.    stop
B.    none
C.    error
D.    all

Answer: CD

QUESTION 16
When a company puts a security policy in place, what is the effect on the company’s business?

A.    Minimizing risk
B.    Minimizing total cost of ownership
C.    Minimizing liability
D.    Maximizing compliance

Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which wildcard mask is associated with a subnet mask of /27?

A.    0.0.0.31
B.    0.0.0.27
C.    0.0.0.224
D.    0.0.0.255

Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which statements about reflexive access lists are true?

A.    Reflexive access lists create a permanent ACE
B.    Reflexive access lists approximate session filtering using the established keyword
C.    Reflexive access lists can be attached to standard named IP ACLs
D.    Reflexive access lists support UDP sessions
E.    Reflexive access lists can be attached to extended named IP ACLs
F.    Reflexive access lists support TCP sessions

Answer: DEF

QUESTION 19
Which actions can a promiscuous IPS take to mitigate an attack?

A.    modifying packets
B.    requesting connection blocking
C.    denying packets
D.    resetting the TCP connection
E.    requesting host blocking
F.    denying frames

Answer: BDE
Explanation:
Promiscuous Mode Event Actions
The following event actions can be deployed in Promiscuous mode. These actions are in affect for a user- configurable default time of 30 minutes. Because the IPS sensor must send the request to another device or craft a packet, latency is associated with these actions and could allow some attacks to be successful.
Blocking through usage of the Attack Response Controller (ARC) has the potential benefit of being able to perform to the network edge or at multiple places within the network.
Request block host: This event action will send an ARC request to block the host for a specified time frame, preventing any further communication. This is a severe action that is most appropriate when there is minimal chance of a false alarm or spoofing.
Request block connection: This action will send an ARC response to block the specific connection. This action is appropriate when there is potential for false alarms or spoofing.
Reset TCP connection: This action is TCP specific, and in instances where the attack requires several TCP packets, this can be a successful action. However, in some cases where the attack only needs one packet it may not work as well. Additionally, TCP resets are not very effective with protocols such as SMTP that consistently try to establish new connections, nor are they effective if the reset cannot reach the destination host in time.
Event actions can be specified on a per signature basis, or as an event action override (based on risk rating values ?event action override only). In the case of event action override, specific event actions are performed when specific risk rating value conditions are met. Event action overrides offer consistent and simplified management. IPS version 6.0 contains a default event action override with a deny-packet-inline action for events with a risk rating between 90 and 100. For this action to occur, the device must be deployed in Inline mode.
Protection from unintended automated action responses
Automated event actions can have unintended consequences when not carefully deployed. The most severe consequence can be a self denial of service (DoS) of a host or network. The majority of these unintended consequences can be avoided through the use of Event Action Filters, Never Block Addresses, Network spoofing protections, and device tuning. The following provides an overview of methods used to prevent unintended consequences from occurring.
Using Event Action Filters and Never Block
By using these capabilities, administrators may prevent a miscreant from spoofing critical IP addresses, causing a self inflicted DoS condition on these critical IP addresses. Note that Never Block capabilities only apply to ARC actions. Actions that are performed inline will still be performed as well as rate limiting if they are configured.
Minimize spoofing
Administrators can minimize spoofed packets that enter the network through the use of Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding. Administrators can minimize spoofing within their network through the use of IP Source Guard. The white paper titled Understanding Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding provides details on configuration of this feature. More information on IP Source Guard is available in the document titled Configuring DHCP Features and IP Source Guard.
Careful Use of Event Actions
By judicious use of event actions that block unwanted traffic, such as using the high signature fidelity rating, and not using automated actions on signatures that are easily spoofed, administrators can reduce the probability of an unintended result. For an event to have a high risk rating, it must have a high signature fidelity rating unless the risk rating is artificially increased through the use of Target Value Rating or Watch List Rating, which are IP specific increases.
Tuning
By tuning the signature set to minimize false positive events, administrators can reduce the chance of an event action that has an unintended consequence.
High Base Risk Rating Events
In most cases, events with a high base risk rating or a high signature fidelity rating are strong candidates for automated event actions. Care should be taken with protocols that are easily spoofed in order to prevent self DoS conditions.

QUESTION 20
Which Cisco Security Manager application collects information about device status and uses it to generate notifications and alerts?

A.    FlexConfig
B.    Device Manager
C.    Report Manager
D.    Health and Performance Monitor

Answer: D
Explanation:
“Report Manager – Collects, displays and exports network usage and security information for ASA and IPS devices, and for remote-access IPsec and SSL VPNs. These reports aggregate security data such as top sources, destinations, attackers, victims, as well as security information such as top bandwidth, duration, and throughput users. Data is also aggregated for hourly, daily, and monthly periods.” and
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QUESTION 1
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Which path will allow the engineer to complete this configuration?

A.    Network Services > Network 1 > DHCP RequestTFTPServerAddress > Off
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QUESTION 1
Which two technologies comprise a Cisco Presence deployment? (Choose two.)

A.    Cisco Unified Presence Server
B.    Cisco Unity Connection
C.    Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D.    Active Directory
E.    Cisco Unified Border Element
F.    Cisco Expressway

Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
When a call is placed from the Branch Router phone to the PSTN number of 914085551212, the call is failing.
What dial-peer is supposed to be used and why is the call failing? Select 2 (two)

21

A.    dial-peer voice 910 pots
B.    dial-peer voice 9 pots
C.    dial-peer voice 9001 voip
D.    destination pattern is incorrect
E.    prefix is missing from the dial-peer
F.    the port assignment is incorrect in the dial-peer
G.    the port number is missing in the dial-peer

Answer: BF

QUESTION 3
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
Emergency calls from a Branch router phone is failing.
From the router configuration information provided, why is this call failing?

31

A.    The dial-peer port assignment is incorrect
B.    the digit string prefix is missing
C.    The destination pattern is incorrect
D.    digit stripping needs to be performed

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)

A.    Round-trip time
B.    QoS markings
C.    Bandwidth
D.    Ethernet
E.    Fibre
F.    Token ring

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
An administrator group is looking to on-board multiple users with Cisco Unified Communications Manager at one time.
Which option should be used?

A.    Bulk Administration Tool
B.    Product Upgrade Tool
C.    Command Lookup Tool
D.    Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options Page
E.    Cisco Upload Tool

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
International calls are also failing.
Using the router configuration supplied, why are international calls failing?

61

A.    Prefix should be 00
B.    The character “T” cannot be used in a Pots dial pattern
C.    The port should be 0/0/0:12
D.    The destination pattern is missing a “0”

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
Calls to National numbers are failing.
Using the Branch router configuration, correctly determine why these calls are not successful

71

A.    The port assignment should be 0/0/0:12
B.    The destination pattern should be 90[1-9]T
C.    The character “T” cannot be used in a Pots dial pattern
D.    The digit prefix should be “00”

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number.
Which configuration item allows an administrator to do this?

A.    Line Text Label
B.    Alerting Name
C.    External Phone Number Mask
D.    Caller Name
E.    Description

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail.
The user’s phone is not set up with a soft key for this feature.
Which option accomplishes this configuration from within the Cisco Unified Communication Administrator Directory Number configuration page?

A.    Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward No Coverage External > Select voice mail check
box
B.    Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Busy External > Select voice mail check box
C.    Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward All > Select voice mail check box
D.    Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Unregistered External > Select voice mail check
box

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A new user has successfully registered Cisco Jabber.
Which option verifies that the Jabber client is connected to all appropriate back-end systems?

A.    Show Connection Status
B.    Report A Problem
C.    Advanced Settings
D.    About Jabber
E.    Reset Jabber

Answer: A

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QUESTION 98
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section. You will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

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Some products are used only internally by the company. Records for these products are maintained in the Products table for inventory purposes. The price for each of these products is $0.00. Customers are not permitted to order these products.

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QUESTION 11
FCoE interfaces are defined as which two port types? (Choose two )

A.    VZ Port
B.    VE Port
C.    VF Port
D.    VI Port
E.    VS Port

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QUESTION 11
Which option describes what a switch does after it items that a host has connected to a switch port?

A.    Flood the frame only on all of its trunk ports.
B.    Create a MAC to port mapping entry in MAC table.
C.    Flood the frame only on all of its access ports.
D.    Discard the frame.

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QUESTION 21
Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2 network? (Choose two.)

A.    802.1d
B.    VTP
C.    802.1q
D.    STP
E.    SAP

Answer: AD
Explanation:
This question is to examine the STP protocol.
STP (802.1d) is used to prevent Layer 2 loops.
802.1q is a Frame Relay protocol which belongs to VLAN.
SAP is a concept of the OSI model.

QUESTION 22
Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process?

A.    32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66
B.    32768: 22-33-44-55-66-77
C.    32769: 11-22-33-44-55-65
D.    32769: 22-33-44-55-66-78

Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A switch is configured with all ports assigned to vlan 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?

A.    More collision domains will be created.
B.    IP address utilization will be more efficient.
C.    More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.
D.    An additional broadcast domain will be created.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Each VLAN creates its own broadcast domain. Since this is a full duplex switch, each port is a separate collision domain.

QUESTION 24
What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.)

A.    A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other
network traffic.
B.    A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same
network infrastructure.
C.    A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same
network infrastructure.
D.    Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing
their size.
E.    Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains, thus increasing
their size.
F.    VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs all belong to
the same broadcast domain.
G.    Port-based VLANs increase switch-port use efficiency, thanks to 802.1Q trunks.

Answer: ACD
Explanation:
Benefits of VLANs
VLAN is a network structure which allows users to communicate while in different locations by sharing one multicast domain and a single broadcast. They provide numerous networking benefits and have become popular in the market. For instance, it helps reduce administrative costs when users are geographically dispersed.
1. Inexpensive
The popularity of VLANs is due to the fact that changes, adds, and moves can be attained simply by making necessary configurations on the VLAN port. Time-consuming, re-addressing, and host reconfigurations is now a thing of the past, because network configuration can be made at ease when need arises.
2. Better management
A VLAN typically solve the scalability issues that exist in a large network by breaking the main domain into several VLAN groups or smaller broadcast configurations, thereby encourage better control of multicast traffic as well as broadcast domains.
3. Improves network security
High-security can be positioned in different VLAN groups to ensure that non-members cannot receive their broadcasts. On the other hand, a router is added and workgroups relocated into centralized locations.
4. Enhances performance
A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same network infrastructure.
5. Segment multiple networks
VLANs are typically used to achieve multiple purposes. They are popularly used to reduce broadcast traffic. Each VLAN creates a separate, smaller broadcast domain.
6. Better administration
VLANs facilitate grouping of multiple geographical stations. When VLAN users move to another physical location, the network does not have to be configured.

QUESTION 25
Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over Fast Ethernet?

A.    802.3ad
B.    802.1w
C.    802.1D
D.    802.1Q

Answer: D
Explanation:
Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) is a Cisco proprietary protocol for negotiating trunking on a link between two devices and for negotiating the type of trunking encapsulation (802.1Q) to be used.

QUESTION 26
Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)

A.    They increase the size of collision domains.
B.    They allow logical grouping of users by function.
C.    They can enhance network security.
D.    They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision domains.
E.    They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains.
F.    They simplify switch administration.

Answer: BCE
Explanation:
When using VLAN the number and size of collision domains remain the same -> VLANs allow to group users by function, not by location or geography -> . VLANs help minimize the incorrect configuration of VLANs so it enhances the security of the network -> .
VLAN increases the size of broadcast domains but does not decrease the number of collision domains ->
VLANs increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains which increase the utilization of the links. It is also a big advantage of VLAN -> . VLANs are useful but they are more complex and need more administration ->

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit. A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected to SwitchA . Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task?

271

A.    SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
B.    SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
C.    SwitchB(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
D.    SwitchB(config)# ip default-network 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
E.    SwitchB(config)# ip route 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

Answer: C
Explanation:
To remote access to SwitchB, it must have a management IP address on a VLAN on that switch. Traditionally, we often use VLAN 1 as the management VLAN (but in fact it is not secure). In the exhibit, we can recognize that the Management Workstation is in a different subnet from the SwitchB. For intersubnetwork communication to occur, you must configure at least one default gateway. This default gateway is used to forward traffic originating from the switch only, not to forward traffic sent by devices connected to the switch.

QUESTION 28
In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)

A.    when they receive a special token
B.    when there is a carrier
C.    when they detect no other devices are sending
D.    when the medium is idle
E.    when the server grants access

Answer: CD
Explanation:
Ethernet network is a shared environment so all devices have the right to access to the medium. If more than one device transmits simultaneously, the signals collide and can not reach the destination.
If a device detects another device is sending, it will wait for a specified amount of time before attempting to transmit.
When there is no traffic detected, a device will transmit its message. While this transmission is occurring, the device continues to listen for traffic or collisions on the LAN. After the message is sent, the device returns to its default listening mode.

QUESTION 29
Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)

A.    discarding
B.    listening
C.    learning
D.    forwarding
E.    disabled

Answer: AD
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cfa.shtml#states

QUESTION 30
Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given Cisco switch interface? (Choose two.)

A.    show interface trunk
B.    show interface interface
C.    show ip interface brief
D.    show interface vlan
E.    show interface switchport

Answer: AE

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QUESTION 21
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

A.    the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B.    the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
C.    the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
D.    the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E.    the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network

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